West Virginia 2018 Regular Session Status: Enacted

SB 273 — Reducing use of certain prescription drugs

Last action — Chapter 46, Acts, Regular Session, 2018

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  1. ✓
    Introduced
  2. ✓
    In Committee
  3. ✓
    Passed Senate
  4. ✓
    Passed House of Delegates
  5. ✓
    To Executive
  6. 6
    Enacted

This bill has been enacted into law. Introduced January 15, 2018. Enacted.

Prognosis

Advancing 56% · moderate confidence

Where this bill stands today.

Odds of enactment

High

How often bills like it became law.

  • Enacted

    Current position in the legislative process.

  • 2 sponsors

    1 primary, 1 co-sponsors signed on.

  • Mixed recorded votes

    2 passed, 2 failed in recorded votes so far.

Prognosis reads this bill's own signals — stage, sponsorship breadth, committee status, recorded votes and cross-state momentum. Odds come from a model trained on which bills have become law.

Bill Text

What changed in the latest version

875 added · 940 removed

Plain-language change summary

The updated version of Bill SB 273 introduces several important changes, including new provisions for emergency rulemaking and specific reporting requirements for healthcare providers. It clarifies the roles and responsibilities of physicians, particularly regarding medication-assisted treatment and opioid prescriptions, aiming to enhance patient safety and ensure better management of chronic pain. Additionally, it emphasizes the importance of consulting with patients before prescribing opioids and requires insurance to cover certain chronic pain treatments. These amendments are crucial as they address the ongoing opioid crisis while ensuring that patients receive appropriate and safe care for chronic pain.

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NEWS RELEASES HELPFUL LINKS SB273 SUB2 ENG2 « Senate Bill 273 History OTHER VERSIONS  —  Committee Substitute (2)  |  Enrolled Version - Final Version  |  Committee Substitute (1)  |  Introduced Version  |   |  Email Key:
NEWS RELEASES HELPFUL LINKS Enrolled Version - Final Version « Senate Bill 273 History OTHER VERSIONS  —  Committee Substitute (2)  |  SB273 SUB2 ENG2  |  Committee Substitute (1)  |  Introduced Version  |   |  Email Key:
Red = new code to be enacted WEST virginia legislature regular session Second Engrossment for Committee Substitute for Committee Substitute for Senate Bill 273 By Senators Carmichael (Mr.
Red = new code to be enacted WEST virginia legislature regular session Enrolled Committee Substitute for Committee Substitute for Senate Bill 273 By Senators Carmichael (Mr.
President) and Prezioso (By Request of the Executive) [Originating in the Committee on the Judiciary;
President) and Prezioso (By Request of the Executive) [Passed March 9, 2018;
Reported on February 8, 2018]     A Bill to amend and reenact §16-5H-2 and §16-5H-9 of the Code of West Virginia, 1931, as amended;
in effect 90 days from passage]     AN ACT to amend and reenact §16-5H-2 and §16-5H-9 of the Code of West Virginia, 1931, as amended;
making clarifying amendments to provide for an exemption for medication-assisted treatment programs;
providing for an exemption for medication-assisted treatment programs;
providing for consideration of other treatment options prior to prescribing an opioid;
requiring referral to certain alternative treatments;
updating board’s titles;
precluding retaliation against a heath care provider for declining to prescribe a narcotic;
precluding retaliation against a heath care provider for declining to prescribe a narcotic;
(a) “Chronic pain” means pain that has persisted after reasonable medical efforts have been made to relieve the pain or cure its cause and that has continued, either continuously or episodically, for longer than three continuous months.
“Chronic pain” means pain that has persisted after reasonable medical efforts have been made to relieve the pain or cure its cause and that has continued, either continuously or episodically, for longer than three continuous months.
(b) “Director” means the Director of the Office of Health Facility Licensure and Certification within the Office of the Inspector General.
“Director” means the Director of the Office of Health Facility Licensure and Certification within the Office of the Inspector General.
(c) “Owner” means any person, partnership, association, or corporation listed as the owner of a pain management clinic on the licensing forms required by this article.
“Owner” means any person, partnership, association, or corporation listed as the owner of a pain management clinic on the licensing forms required by this article.
(d) “Pain management clinic” means all privately-owned pain management clinics, facilities, or offices not otherwise exempted from this article and which meet both of the following criteria:
“Pain management clinic” means all privately-owned pain management clinics, facilities, or offices not otherwise exempted from this article and which meet both of the following criteria:
(e) “Physician” means an individual authorized to practice medicine or surgery or osteopathic medicine or surgery in this state.
“Physician” means an individual authorized to practice medicine or surgery or osteopathic medicine or surgery in this state.
(f) “Prescriber” means an individual who is authorized by law to prescribe drugs or drug therapy related devices in the course of the individual’s professional practice, including only a medical or osteopathic physician authorized to practice medicine or surgery;
“Prescriber” means an individual who is authorized by law to prescribe drugs or drug therapy related devices in the course of the individual’s professional practice, including only a medical or osteopathic physician authorized to practice medicine or surgery;
(g) “Secretary” means the Secretary of the West Virginia Department of Health and Human Resources.
“Secretary” means the Secretary of the West Virginia Department of Health and Human Resources.
The Legislature finds that the changes made to this article during the 2018 regular session of the Legislature constitute an emergency for the purposes of filing any amendment to existing rules.  ARTICLE 5Y.  MEDICATION-ASSISTED TREATMENT PROGRAM LICENSING ACT.    §16-5Y-2.
The Legislature finds that the changes made to this article during the regular session of the Legislature constitute an emergency for the purposes of filing any amendment to existing rules.  ARTICLE 5Y.  MEDICATION-ASSISTED TREATMENT PROGRAM LICENSING ACT.    §16-5Y-2.
(a) “Addiction” means a primary, chronic disease of brain reward, motivation, memory, and related circuitry.  Dysfunction in these circuits leads to characteristic biological, psychological, social, and spiritual manifestations which is reflected in an individual pathologically pursuing reward or relief by substance use, or both, and other behaviors.  Addiction is characterized by inability to consistently abstain;
“Addiction” means a primary, chronic disease of brain reward, motivation, memory, and related circuitry.  Dysfunction in these circuits leads to characteristic biological, psychological, social, and spiritual manifestations which is reflected in an individual pathologically pursuing reward or relief by substance use, or both, and other behaviors.  Addiction is characterized by inability to consistently abstain;
(b) “Administrator” means an individual designated by the governing body to be responsible for the day-to-day operation of the opioid treatment programs.
 “Administrator” means an individual designated by the governing body to be responsible for the day-to-day operation of the opioid treatment programs.
(c) “Advanced alcohol and drug abuse counselor” means an alcohol and drug abuse counselor who is certified by the West Virginia Certification Board for Addiction and Prevention Professionals who demonstrates a high degree of competence in the addiction counseling field.
“Advanced alcohol and drug abuse counselor” means an alcohol and drug abuse counselor who is certified by the West Virginia Certification Board for Addiction and Prevention Professionals who demonstrates a high degree of competence in the addiction counseling field.
(d) “Alcohol and drug abuse counselor” means a counselor certified by the West Virginia Certification Board for Addiction and Prevention Professionals for specialized work with patients who have substance use problems.
“Alcohol and drug abuse counselor” means a counselor certified by the West Virginia Certification Board for Addiction and Prevention Professionals for specialized work with patients who have substance use problems.
(e) “Biopsychosocial” means of, relating to, or concerned with, biological, psychological, and social aspects in contrast to the strictly biomedical aspects of disease.
“Biopsychosocial” means of, relating to, or concerned with, biological, psychological, and social aspects in contrast to the strictly biomedical aspects of disease.
(f) “Center for Substance Abuse Treatment” means the center under the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration that promotes community-based substance abuse treatment and recovery services for individuals and families in the community and provides national leadership to improve access, reduce barriers, and promote high quality, effective treatment and recovery services.
“Center for Substance Abuse Treatment” means the center under the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration that promotes community-based substance abuse treatment and recovery services for individuals and families in the community and provides national leadership to improve access, reduce barriers, and promote high quality, effective treatment and recovery services.
(g) “Controlled Substances Monitoring Program Database” means the database maintained by the West Virginia Board of Pharmacy pursuant to §60A-9-3 of this code that monitors and tracks certain prescriptions written or dispensed by dispensers and prescribers in West Virginia.
“Controlled Substances Monitoring Program Database” means the database maintained by the West Virginia Board of Pharmacy pursuant to §60A-9-3 of this code that monitors and tracks certain prescriptions written or dispensed by dispensers and prescribers in West Virginia.
(h) “Director” means the Director of the Office of Health Facility Licensure and Certification.
“Director” means the Director of the Office of Health Facility Licensure and Certification.
(i) “Dispense” means the preparation and delivery of a medication-assisted treatment medication in an appropriately labeled and suitable container to a patient by a medication-assisted treatment program or pharmacist.
“Dispense” means the preparation and delivery of a medication-assisted treatment medication in an appropriately labeled and suitable container to a patient by a medication-assisted treatment program or pharmacist.
(j) “Governing body” means the person or persons identified as being legally responsible for the operation of the opioid treatment program.  A governing body may be a board, a single entity or owner, or a partnership.
“Governing body” means the person or persons identified as being legally responsible for the operation of the opioid treatment program.  A governing body may be a board, a single entity or owner, or a partnership.
(k) “Medical director” means a physician licensed within the State of West Virginia who assumes responsibility for administering all medical services performed by the medication-assisted treatment program, either by performing them directly or by delegating specific responsibility to authorized program physicians and health care professionals functioning under the medical director’s direct supervision and functioning within their scope of practice.
“Medical director” means a physician licensed within the State of West Virginia who assumes responsibility for administering all medical services performed by the medication-assisted treatment program, either by performing them directly or by delegating specific responsibility to authorized program physicians and health care professionals functioning under the medical director’s direct supervision and functioning within their scope of practice.
(l) “Medication-assisted treatment” means the use of medications and drug screens, in combination with counseling and behavioral therapies, to provide a holistic approach to the treatment of substance use disorders.
“Medication-assisted treatment” means the use of medications and drug screens, in combination with counseling and behavioral therapies, to provide a holistic approach to the treatment of substance use disorders.
(m) “Medication-assisted treatment program” means all publicly and privately owned opioid treatment programs and office-based, medication-assisted treatment programs, which prescribe medication-assisted treatment medications and treat substance use disorders, as those terms are defined in this article.
“Medication-assisted treatment program” means all publicly and privately owned opioid treatment programs and office-based, medication-assisted treatment programs, which prescribe medication-assisted treatment medications and treat substance use disorders, as those terms are defined in this article.
(n) “Medication-assisted treatment medication” means any medication that is approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration under Section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act, 21 U.
“Medication-assisted treatment medication” means any medication that is approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration under Section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act, 21 U.
(o)  “Office-based, medication-assisted treatment” means all publicly or privately owned medication-assisted treatment programs in clinics, facilities, offices, or programs that provide medication-assisted treatment to individuals with substance use disorders through the prescription, administration, or dispensing of a medication-assisted treatment medication in the form of a partial opioid agonist or other medication-assisted medication approved for use in office based medication-assisted treatment setting.
“Office-based, medication-assisted treatment” means all publicly or privately owned clinics, facilities, offices, or programs that provide medication-assisted treatment to individuals with substance use disorders through the prescription, administration, or dispensing of a medication-assisted treatment medication in the form of a partial opioid agonist.
(p) “Opioid agonist” means substances that bind to and activate the opiate receptors resulting in analgesia and pain regulation, respiratory depression, and a wide variety of behavioral changes.  As used in this article, the term “opioid agonist” does not include partial agonist medications used as an alternative to opioid agonists in the treatment of opioid addiction.
“Opioid agonist” means substances that bind to and activate the opiate receptors resulting in analgesia and pain regulation, respiratory depression, and a wide variety of behavioral changes.  As used in this article, the term “opioid agonist” does not include partial agonist medications used as an alternative to opioid agonists in the treatment of opioid addiction.
(q) “Opioid treatment program” means all publicly- or privately-owned medication-assisted treatment programs in clinics, facilities, offices, or programs that provide medication-assisted treatment to individuals with substance use disorders through on-site administration or dispensing of a medication-assisted treatment medication in the form of an opioid agonist or partial opioid agonist.
 “Opioid treatment program” means all publicly- or privately-owned medication-assisted treatment programs in clinics, facilities, offices, or programs that provide medication-assisted treatment to individuals with substance use disorders through on-site administration or dispensing of a medication-assisted treatment medication in the form of an opioid agonist or partial opioid agonist.
(r) “Owner” means any person, partnership, association, or corporation listed as the owner of a medication-assisted treatment program on the licensing or registration forms required by this article.
“Owner” means any person, partnership, association, or corporation listed as the owner of a medication-assisted treatment program on the licensing or registration forms required by this article.
(s) “Partial opioid agonist” means a Federal Drug Administration approved medication that is used as an alternative to opioid agonists for the treatment of substance use disorders and that binds to and activates opiate receptors, but not to the same degree as full agonists.
“Partial opioid agonist” means a Federal Drug Administration approved medication that is used as an alternative to opioid agonists for the treatment of substance use disorders and that binds to and activates opiate receptors, but not to the same degree as full agonists.
(t) “Physician” means an individual licensed in this state to practice allopathic medicine or surgery by the West Virginia Board of Medicine or osteopathic medicine or surgery by the West Virginia Board of Osteopathic Medicine and that meets the requirements of this article.
“Physician” means an individual licensed in this state to practice allopathic medicine or surgery by the West Virginia Board of Medicine or osteopathic medicine or surgery by the West Virginia Board of Osteopathic Medicine and that meets the requirements of this article.
(u) “Prescriber” means a person authorized in this state, working within their scope of practice, to give direction, either orally or in writing, for the preparation and administration of a remedy to be used in the treatment of substance use disorders.
“Prescriber” means a person authorized in this state, working within their scope of practice, to give direction, either orally or in writing, for the preparation and administration of a remedy to be used in the treatment of substance use disorders.
(v) “Program sponsor” means the person named in the application for the certification and licensure of an opioid treatment program who is responsible for the administrative operation of the opioid treatment program and who assumes responsibility for all of its employees, including any practitioners, agents, or other persons providing medical, rehabilitative, or counseling services at the program.
“Program sponsor” means the person named in the application for the certification and licensure of an opioid treatment program who is responsible for the administrative operation of the opioid treatment program and who assumes responsibility for all of its employees, including any practitioners, agents, or other persons providing medical, rehabilitative, or counseling services at the program.
(w) “Secretary” means the Secretary of the West Virginia Department of Health and Human Resources or his or her designee.
“Secretary” means the Secretary of the West Virginia Department of Health and Human Resources or his or her designee.
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(x) “State opioid treatment authority” means the agency or individual designated by the Governor to exercise the responsibility and authority of the state for governing the treatment of substance use disorders, including, but not limited to, the treatment of opiate addiction with opioid drugs.
“State opioid treatment authority” means the agency or individual designated by the Governor to exercise the responsibility and authority of the state for governing the treatment of substance use disorders, including, but not limited to, the treatment of opiate addiction with opioid drugs.
(y) “State oversight agency” means the agency or office of state government identified by the secretary to provide regulatory oversight of medication-assisted treatment programs on behalf of the State of West Virginia.
“State oversight agency” means the agency or office of state government identified by the secretary to provide regulatory oversight of medication-assisted treatment programs on behalf of the State of West Virginia.
(z) “Substance” means the following:
“Substance” means the following:
(aa) “Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration” means the agency under the United States Department of Health and Human Services responsible for the accreditation and certification of medication-assisted treatment programs and that provides leadership, resources, programs, policies, information, data, contracts, and grants for the purpose of reducing the impact of substance abuse and mental or behavioral illness.
“Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration” means the agency under the United States Department of Health and Human Services responsible for the accreditation and certification of medication-assisted treatment programs and that provides leadership, resources, programs, policies, information, data, contracts, and grants for the purpose of reducing the impact of substance abuse and mental or behavioral illness.
(bb) “Substance use disorder” means patterns of symptoms resulting from use of a substance that the individual continues to take, despite experiencing problems as a result;
“Substance use disorder” means patterns of symptoms resulting from use of a substance that the individual continues to take, despite experiencing problems as a result;
(cc) “Telehealth” means the mode of delivering health care services and public health via information and communication technologies to facilitate the diagnosis, consultation, treatment education, care management, and self-management of a patient’s health care while the patient is at the originating site and the health care provider is at a distant site.
“Telehealth” means the mode of delivering health care services and public health via information and communication technologies to facilitate the diagnosis, consultation, treatment education, care management, and self-management of a patient’s health care while the patient is at the originating site and the health care provider is at a distant site.
(dd) “Variance” means written permission granted by the secretary to a medication-assisted treatment program that a requirement of this article or rules promulgated pursuant to this article may be accomplished in a manner different from the manner set forth in this article or associated rules.
“Variance” means written permission granted by the secretary to a medication-assisted treatment program that a requirement of this article or rules promulgated pursuant to this article may be accomplished in a manner different from the manner set forth in this article or associated rules.
(ee) “Waiver” means a formal, time-limited agreement between the designated oversight agency and the medication-assisted treatment program that suspends a rule, policy, or standard for a specific situation so long as the health and safety of patients is better served in the situation by suspension of the rule, policy, or standard than by enforcement.
“Waiver” means a formal, time-limited agreement between the designated oversight agency and the medication-assisted treatment program that suspends a rule, policy, or standard for a specific situation so long as the health and safety of patients is better served in the situation by suspension of the rule, policy, or standard than by enforcement.
and (17) Board of Pharmacy Controlled Substance Prescriber Report for each prescriber practicing at the program for the three months preceding the date of application;
and (17) Board of Pharmacy Controlled Substance Prescriber Report for each prescriber practicing at the program for the three months preceding the date of application.
and (18) If applicable, a copy of a valid Certificate of Need or a letter of exemption from the West Virginia Health Care Authority.
(j) Any person, partnership, association, or corporation operating a an office-based, medication-assisted treatment program shall be permitted to continue operation until the effective date of the new rules promulgated pursuant to this article.  At that time a person, partnership, association, or corporation shall file for registration within six months pursuant to the licensing procedures and requirements of this section and the new rules promulgated hereunder.
(j) Any person, partnership, association, or corporation operating an office-based, medication-assisted treatment program shall be permitted to continue operation until the effective date of the new rules promulgated pursuant to this article.  At that time a person, partnership, association, or corporation shall file for registration within six months pursuant to the licensing procedures and requirements of this section and the new rules promulgated hereunder.
(1) A Be a licensed psychiatrist;
(1) Be a licensed psychiatrist;
(4) A Be a counselor, psychologist, marriage and family therapist, or social worker with a master’s level education with a specialty or specific training in treatment for substance use disorders, as further described in the rules promulgated pursuant to this article;
(4) Be a counselor, psychologist, marriage and family therapist, or social worker with a master’s level education with a specialty or specific training in treatment for substance use disorders, as further described in the rules promulgated pursuant to this article;
or (6) A Be a counselor with a graduate degree actively working toward licensure or certification in the individual’s chosen field under supervision of a licensed or certified professional in that field and/or advanced alcohol and drug counselor.
or (6) Be a counselor with a graduate degree actively working toward licensure or certification in the individual’s chosen field under supervision of a licensed or certified professional in that field and/or advanced alcohol and drug counselor.
Provided, That the secretary may grant a variance from this requirement pursuant to §15-5Y-6 of this article code.
Provided, That the secretary may grant a variance from this requirement pursuant to §15-5Y-6 of this code.
(4) A physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse shall perform a physical examination of a patient on the same day that the prescriber initially prescribes, dispenses or administers a medication-assisted treatment medication to a patient and at intervals as required in the rules promulgated pursuant to this article;
(4) A prescriber authorized to prescribe a medication-assisted treatment medication who practices at a medication-assisted treatment program is responsible for maintaining the control and security of his or her prescription blanks and any other method used for prescribing a medication-assisted treatment medication.  The prescriber shall comply with all state and federal requirements for tamper-resistant prescription paper.
(5) An alcohol and drug abuse counselor, an advanced alcohol and drug abuse counselor or other qualified counselor, psychiatrist, psychologist or social worker shall perform a biopsychosocial assessment, including, but not limited to, a mental status examination of a patient on the same day or no more than seven days prior to the day that the physician initially prescribes, dispenses or administers a medication-assisted treatment medication to a patient and at intervals as required in the rules promulgated pursuant to this article;
(6) A prescriber authorized to prescribe a medication-assisted treatment medication who practices at a medication-assisted treatment program is responsible for maintaining the control and security of his or her prescription blanks and any other method used for prescribing a medication-assisted treatment medication.  The prescriber shall comply with all state and federal requirements for tamper-resistant prescription paper.
and (7) (5) The medication-assisted treatment program shall have a drug testing program to ensure a patient is in compliance with the treatment strategy.
and (5) The medication-assisted treatment program shall have a drug testing program to ensure a patient is in compliance with the treatment strategy.
(3) A physician assistant with prescriptive authority as set forth in §30-3E-1 et seq.
(3) A physician assistant with prescriptive authority as set forth in §30-3E-3 of this code;
of this code;
(a) When issuing a prescription for an opioid to an adult patient seeking treatment in an emergency room or an urgent care facility setting for outpatient use, a health care practitioner may not issue a prescription for more than a four-day supply.
(a) When issuing a prescription for an opioid to an adult patient seeking treatment in an emergency room for outpatient use, a health care practitioner may not issue a prescription for more than a four-day supply.
(b) A health care practitioner may not issue an opioid prescription to a minor for more than a three-day supply and shall discuss with the parent or guardian of the minor the risks associated with opioid use and the reasons why the prescription is necessary.
(b) When issuing a prescription for an opioid to an adult patient seeking treatment in an urgent care facility setting for outpatient use, a health care practitioner may not issue a prescription for more than a four-day supply:
(c) A dentist or an optometrist may not issue an opioid prescription for more than a three-day supply at any time.
Provided, That an additional dosing for up to no more than a seven-day supply may be permitted, but only if the medical rational for more than a four-day supply is documented in the medical record.
(d) A practitioner may not issue an initial opioid prescription for more than a seven-day supply.
(c) A health care practitioner may not issue an opioid prescription to a minor for more than a three-day supply and shall discuss with the parent or guardian of the minor the risks associated with opioid use and the reasons why the prescription is necessary.
(d) A dentist or an optometrist may not issue an opioid prescription for more than a three-day supply at any time.
(e) A practitioner may not issue an initial opioid prescription for more than a seven-day supply.
(e) A veterinarian licensed pursuant to the provisions of §30-10-1 et seq.
of this code may not issue more than an initial opioid prescription for more than a seven-day supply.
The prescription shall be for the lowest effective dose which in the medical judgment of the veterinarian would be the best course of treatment for this patient and his or her condition.
(g)  Notwithstanding any provision of this code or legislative rule to the contrary, no medication listed as a Schedule II controlled substance as set forth in §60A-2-206 of this code, may be prescribed by a practitioner for greater than a 30-day supply:
(g) Notwithstanding any provision of this code or legislative rule to the contrary, no medication listed as a Schedule II controlled substance as set forth in §60A-2-206 of this code, may be prescribed by a practitioner for greater than a 30-day supply:
of this code:  Provided, however, That the limitations in this section do not apply to cancer patients, patients receiving hospice care from a licensed hospice provider, patients receiving palliative care, a patient who is a resident of a long-term care facility, or a patient receiving medications that are being prescribed for use in the treatment of substance abuse or opioid dependence.
of this code:
Provided, however, That the limitations in this section do not apply to cancer patients, patients receiving hospice care from a licensed hospice provider, patients receiving palliative care, a patient who is a resident of a long-term care facility, or a patient receiving medications that are being prescribed for use in the treatment of substance abuse or opioid dependence.
(i)  A prescription for any drug listed on Schedule II as set forth in §60A-2-206 of this code for greater than a seven-day period shall require the patient to execute a narcotics contract with their prescribing practitioner.  The contract shall be made a part of the patient’s medical record.  The narcotics contract is required to provide that:  (1) The patient agrees only to obtain scheduled medications from this particular prescribing practitioner;
(i) A veterinarian licensed pursuant to the provisions of §30-10-1 et seq.
(2)  The patient agrees he or she will only fill those prescriptions for Schedule II at a single pharmacy;
of this code may not issue more than an initial opioid prescription for more than a seven-day supply.
(3)  The patient agrees to notify the prescribing practitioner within 24 hours of any emergency where he or she are prescribed scheduled medication;
The prescription shall be for the lowest effective dose which in the medical judgment of the veterinarian would be the best course of treatment for this patient and his or her condition.
and (4)  If the patient fails to honor the provisions of the narcotics contract, the prescribing practitioner may either terminate the provider-patient relationship or continue to treat the patient without prescribing Schedule II drugs for the patient.  Should the practitioner decide to terminate the relationship, he or she is required to do so pursuant to the provisions of this code and any rules promulgated hereunder.  Termination of the relationship for the patient’s failure to honor the provisions of the contract is not subject to any disciplinary action by the practitioner’s licensing board.  §16-54-5.  Subsequent prescriptions;
(j)  A prescription for any opioid drug listed on Schedule II as set forth in §60A-2-206 of this code for greater than a seven-day period shall require the patient to execute a narcotics contract with their prescribing practitioner.
 The contract shall be made a part of the patient’s medical record.  The narcotics contract is required to provide that:  (1) The patient agrees only to obtain scheduled medications from this particular prescribing practitioner;
(2) The patient agrees he or she will only fill those prescriptions at a single pharmacy which includes a pharmacy with more than one location;
(3) The patient agrees to notify the prescribing practitioner within 72 hours of any emergency where he or she is prescribed scheduled medication;
and (4) If the patient fails to honor the provisions of the narcotics contract, the prescribing practitioner may either terminate the provider-patient relationship or continue to treat the patient without prescribing a Schedule II opioid for the patient.  Should the practitioner decide to terminate the relationship, he or she is required to do so pursuant to the provisions of this code and any rules promulgated hereunder.  Termination of the relationship for the patient’s failure to honor the provisions of the contract is not subject to any disciplinary action by the practitioner’s licensing board.  §16-54-5.  Subsequent prescriptions;
referral to pain clinic or pain specialist.  (a) At the time of the issuance of the third prescription for a prescription opioid the practitioner shall consider referring the patient to a pain clinic or a pain specialist.
referral to pain clinic or pain specialist.  (a) At the time of the issuance of the third prescription for a prescription opioid the practitioner shall consider referring the patient to a pain clinic or a pain specialist.  The practitioner shall discuss the benefits of seeking treatment through a pain clinic or a pain specialist and provide him or her with an understanding of any risks associated by choosing not to pursue that as an option.  (b) If the patient declines to seek treatment from a pain clinic or a pain specialist and opts to remain a patient of the practitioner, and the practitioner continues to prescribe an opioid for pain as provided in this code, the practitioner shall:
 The practitioner shall discuss the benefits of seeking treatment through a pain clinic or a pain specialist and provide him or her with an understanding of any risks associated by choosing not to pursue that as an option.  (b) If the patient declines to seek treatment from a pain clinic or a pain specialist and opts to remain a patient of the practitioner, and the practitioner continues to prescribe an opioid for pain as provided in this code, the practitioner shall:
(b)  A practitioner may prescribe an initial seven-day supply of an opioid to a post-surgery patient immediately following a surgical procedure.  Based upon the medical judgment of the practitioner, a subsequent prescription may be prescribed by the practitioner pursuant to the provisions of this code.
(b) A practitioner may prescribe an initial seven-day supply of an opioid to a post-surgery patient immediately following a surgical procedure.  Based upon the medical judgment of the practitioner, a subsequent prescription may be prescribed by the practitioner pursuant to the provisions of this code.
Nothing in this section authorizes a practitioner to prescribe any medication which he or she is not permitted to prescribe pursuant to their practice act.  (c)  A practitioner who acquires a patient after January 1, 2018, who is currently being prescribed an opioid from another practitioner shall be required to access the Controlled Substances Monitoring Program Database as set forth in §60A-9-1 et seq.
Nothing in this section authorizes a practitioner to prescribe any medication which he or she is not permitted to prescribe pursuant to their practice act.  (c) A practitioner who acquires a patient after January 1, 2018, who is currently being prescribed an opioid from another practitioner shall be required to access the Controlled Substances Monitoring Program Database as set forth in §60A-9-1 et seq.
(a) When patients seek treatment for any of the myriad conditions that cause pain, a health care practitioner shall consider prescribing any of the following treatment alternatives, based on the practitioner’s clinical judgment and the availability of the treatment, before starting a patient on an opioid:
(a) When patients seek treatment for any of the myriad conditions that cause pain, a health care practitioner shall refer or prescribe to a patient any of the following treatment alternatives, based on the practitioner’s clinical judgment and the availability of the treatment, before starting a patient on an opioid:
physical therapy, acupuncture, massage therapy, osteopathic manipulation, chronic pain management program, and chiropractic care.
physical therapy, occupational therapy, acupuncture, massage therapy, osteopathic manipulation, chronic pain management program, and chiropractic services, as defined in §30-16-3 of this code.
(b) Nothing in this section should be construed to require that all of the treatment alternatives set forth in §16-54-8(a) of this code are required to be exhausted prior to the patient receiving a prescription for an opioid.  (c)  At a minimum an insurance provider who offers an insurance product in this state, the Bureau for Medical Services and the Public Employees Insurance Agency shall provide coverage for 20 visits per event of physical therapy, osteopathic manipulation, a chronic pain management program, and chiropractic care when ordered by a health care practitioner to treat conditions that cause chronic pain.  A patient may seek treatment for physical therapy, osteopathic manipulation, a chronic pain management program, and chiropractic care prior to seeking treatment from a practitioner and a practitioner referral is not required as a condition of coverage by the Bureau for Medical Services, the Public Employees Insurance Agency, and any insurance provider who offers an insurance product in this state.  Any co-pay required for any of these services may not be greater than the co-pay required for an emergency room visit.  (d) A patient may seek treatment for physical therapy, osteopathic manipulation, a chronic pain management program, and chiropractic care prior to seeking treatment from a practitioner and a practitioner referral is not required as a condition of coverage by the Bureau for Medical Services, the Public Employees Insurance Agency, and any insurance provider who offers an insurance product in this state.  Any deductible, coinsurance, or co-pay required for any of these services may not be greater than the deductible required for an emergency room visit.
(b) Nothing in this section should be construed to require that all of the treatment alternatives set forth in §16-54-8(a) of this code are required to be exhausted prior to the patient receiving a prescription for an opioid.  (c) At a minimum, an insurance provider who offers an insurance product in this state, the Bureau for Medical Services, and the Public Employees Insurance Agency shall provide coverage for 20 visits per event of physical therapy, occupational therapy, osteopathic manipulation, a chronic pain management program, and chiropractic services, as defined in §30-16-3 of this code, when ordered by a health care practitioner to treat conditions that cause chronic pain.
            (e)  Nothing in this section precludes a practitioner from simultaneously prescribing an opioid and prescribing or recommending any of the procedures set forth in §16-54-8(a) of this code.
(d) A patient may seek treatment for physical therapy, occupational therapy, osteopathic manipulation, a chronic pain management program, and chiropractic services, as defined in §30-16-3 of this code, prior to seeking treatment from a practitioner and a practitioner referral is not required as a condition of coverage by the Bureau for Medical Services, the Public Employees Insurance Agency, and any insurance provider who offers an insurance product in this state.  Any deductible, coinsurance, or co-pay required for any of these services may not be greater than the deductible, coinsurance, or co-pay required for a primary care visit.
(e) Nothing in this section precludes a practitioner from simultaneously prescribing an opioid and prescribing or recommending any of the procedures set forth in §16-54-8(a) of this code.
grounds for license denial and discipline of physicians and podiatrist;  investigations;
grounds for license denial and discipline of physicians and podiatrist;
investigations;
or unfavorable outcomes arising out of medical professional liability.
or unfavorable outcomes arising out of medical professional liability.  The board shall initiate an investigation if it receives notice that three or more judgments, or any combination of judgments and settlements resulting in five or more unfavorable outcomes arising from medical professional liability, have been rendered or made against the physician or podiatrist within a five-year period.
 The board shall initiate an investigation if it receives notice that three or more judgments, or any combination of judgments and settlements resulting in five or more unfavorable outcomes arising from medical professional liability, have been rendered or made against the physician or podiatrist within a five-year period.
The chief executive officer of every hospital shall, within days after the completion of the hospital’s formal disciplinary procedure and also within 60 days after the commencement of and again after the conclusion of any resulting legal action, report in writing to the board the name of any member of the medical staff or any other physician or podiatrist practicing in the hospital whose hospital privileges have been revoked, restricted, reduced, or terminated for any cause, including resignation, together with all pertinent information relating to such action.
The chief executive officer of every hospital shall, within 60 days after the completion of the hospital’s formal disciplinary procedure and also within 60 days after the commencement of and again after the conclusion of any resulting legal action, report in writing to the board the name of any member of the medical staff or any other physician or podiatrist practicing in the hospital whose hospital privileges have been revoked, restricted, reduced, or terminated for any cause, including resignation, together with all pertinent information relating to such action.
(d) The board shall deny any application for a license or other authorization to practice medicine and surgery or podiatry in this state to any applicant who, and shall revoke the license of any physician or podiatrist licensed or otherwise lawfully practicing within this state who, is found guilty by any court of competent jurisdiction of any felony involving prescribing, selling, administering, dispensing, mixing, or otherwise preparing any prescription drug, including any controlled substance under state or federal law, for other than generally accepted therapeutic purposes.
(d) The board shall deny any application for a license or other authorization to practice medicine and surgery or podiatry in this state to any applicant, and shall revoke the license of any physician or podiatrist licensed or otherwise lawfully practicing within this state who, is found guilty by any court of competent jurisdiction of any felony involving prescribing, selling, administering, dispensing, mixing, or otherwise preparing any prescription drug, including any controlled substance under state or federal law, for other than generally accepted therapeutic purposes.
(f) The investigating body, as provided in §30-3-14(e) of this section code, may request and the board under any circumstances may require a physician or podiatrist or person applying for licensure or other authorization to practice medicine and surgery or podiatry in this state to submit to a physical or mental examination by a physician or physicians approved by the board.
(f) The investigating body, as provided in §30-3-14(e) of this code, may request and the board under any circumstances may require a physician or podiatrist or person applying for licensure or other authorization to practice medicine and surgery or podiatry in this state to submit to a physical or mental examination by a physician or physicians approved by the board.
of this code.
of this code.  However, hearings shall be heard upon sworn testimony and the rules of evidence for trial courts of record in this state shall apply to all hearings.
 However, hearings shall be heard upon sworn testimony and the rules of evidence for trial courts of record in this state shall apply to all hearings.
(j) Whenever it finds any person unqualified because of any of the grounds set forth in §30-3-14(c) of this section code, the board may enter an order imposing one or more of the following:
(j) Whenever it finds any person unqualified because of any of the grounds set forth in §30-3-14(c) of this code, the board may enter an order imposing one or more of the following:
(k) Notwithstanding the provisions of §30-1-8 of this code, if the board determines the evidence in its possession indicates that a physician’s or podiatrist’s continuation in practice or unrestricted practice constitutes an immediate danger to the public, the board may take any of the actions provided in §30-3-4(j) of this section code on a temporary basis and without a hearing if institution of proceedings for a hearing before the board are initiated simultaneously with the temporary action and begin within 15 days of the action.
(k) Notwithstanding the provisions of §30-1-8 of this code, if the board determines the evidence in its possession indicates that a physician’s or podiatrist’s continuation in practice or unrestricted practice constitutes an immediate danger to the public, the board may take any of the actions provided in §30-3-4(j) of this code on a temporary basis and without a hearing if institution of proceedings for a hearing before the board are initiated simultaneously with the temporary action and begin within 15 days of the action.
(p) In every case considered by the board under this article regarding discipline or licensure, whether initiated by the board or upon complaint or information from any person or organization, the board shall make a preliminary determination as to whether probable cause exists to substantiate charges of disqualification due to any reason set forth in §30-3-14(c) of this section code.
(p) In every case considered by the board under this article regarding discipline or licensure, whether initiated by the board or upon complaint or information from any person or organization, the board shall make a preliminary determination as to whether probable cause exists to substantiate charges of disqualification due to any reason set forth in §30-3-14(c) of this code.
(q) If the board receives notice that a physician or podiatrist has been subjected to disciplinary action or has had his or her credentials suspended or revoked by the board, a hospital or a professional society, as defined in §30-3-14(b) of this section code, for three or more incidents during a five-year period, the board shall require the physician or podiatrist to practice under the direction of a physician or podiatrist designated by the board for a specified period of time to be established by the board.
(q) If the board receives notice that a physician or podiatrist has been subjected to disciplinary action or has had his or her credentials suspended or revoked by the board, a hospital or a professional society, as defined in §30-3-14(b) of this code, for three or more incidents during a five-year period, the board shall require the physician or podiatrist to practice under the direction of a physician or podiatrist designated by the board for a specified period of time to be established by the board.
(1) An “Accepted guideline” is a care or practice guideline for pain management developed by a nationally recognized clinical or professional association or a specialty society or government-sponsored agency that has developed practice or care guidelines based on original research or on review of existing research and expert opinion.
“Accepted guideline” is a care or practice guideline for pain management developed by a nationally recognized clinical or professional association or a specialty society or government-sponsored agency that has developed practice or care guidelines based on original research or on review of existing research and expert opinion.
(2) “Board” or “licensing board” means the West Virginia Board of Medicine, the West Virginia Board of Osteopathy, the West Virginia Board of Registered Nurses or, the West Virginia Board of Pharmacy, the West Virginia Board of Optometry, or the West Virginia Board of Dentistry.
“Board” or “licensing board” means the West Virginia Board of Medicine, the West Virginia Board of Osteopathy, the West Virginia Board of Registered Nurses, the West Virginia Board of Pharmacy, the West Virginia Board of Optometry, or the West Virginia Board of Dentistry.
(3) “Nurse” means a registered nurse licensed in the State of West Virginia pursuant to the provisions of §30-7-1 et seq.
“Nurse” means a registered nurse licensed in the State of West Virginia pursuant to the provisions of §30-7-1 et seq.
(4) “Pain” means an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage or described in terms of such damage.
“Pain” means an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage or described in terms of such damage.
(5) “Pain-relieving controlled substance” includes, but is not limited to, an opioid or other drug classified as a Schedule II through V controlled substance and recognized as effective for pain relief, and excludes any drug that has no accepted medical use in the United States or lacks accepted safety for use in treatment under medical supervision including, but not limited to, any drug classified as a Schedule I controlled substance.
“Pain-relieving controlled substance” includes, but is not limited to, an opioid or other drug classified as a Schedule II through V controlled substance and recognized as effective for pain relief, and excludes any drug that has no accepted medical use in the United States or lacks accepted safety for use in treatment under medical supervision including, but not limited to, any drug classified as a Schedule I controlled substance.
(6) “Pharmacist” means a registered pharmacist licensed in the State of West Virginia pursuant to the provisions of §30-5-1 et seq.
“Pharmacist” means a registered pharmacist licensed in the State of West Virginia pursuant to the provisions of §30-5-1 et seq.
(7) “Physician” means a physician licensed in the State of West Virginia pursuant to the provisions of article three or article fourteen of this chapter.
 “Prescriber” shall mean:
“Prescriber” shall mean:
(a) A physician prescriber is not subject to disciplinary sanctions by a licensing board or criminal punishment by the state for prescribing, administering, or dispensing pain-relieving controlled substances for the purpose of alleviating or controlling pain if:
(a) A prescriber is not subject to disciplinary sanctions by a licensing board or criminal punishment by the state for prescribing, administering, or dispensing pain-relieving controlled substances for the purpose of alleviating or controlling pain if:
(1) In the case of a dying patient experiencing pain, the physician prescriber practices in accordance with an accepted guideline as defined in §30-3A-1 of this article code and discharges his or her professional obligation to relieve the dying patient’s pain and promote the dignity and autonomy of the dying patient;
(1) In the case of a dying patient experiencing pain, the prescriber practices in accordance with an accepted guideline as defined in §30-3A-1 of this code and discharges his or her professional obligation to relieve the dying patient’s pain and promote the dignity and autonomy of the dying patient;
or (2) In the case of a patient who is not dying and is experiencing pain, the physician prescriber discharges his or her professional obligation to relieve the patient’s pain, if the physician prescriber can demonstrate by reference to an accepted guideline that his or her practice substantially complied with that accepted guideline.
or (2) In the case of a patient who is not dying and is experiencing pain, the prescriber discharges his or her professional obligation to relieve the patient’s pain, if the prescriber can demonstrate by reference to an accepted guideline that his or her practice substantially complied with that accepted guideline.
(a) Nothing in this article shall prohibit disciplinary action or criminal prosecution of a physician prescriber for:
(a) Nothing in this article shall prohibit disciplinary action or criminal prosecution of a prescriber for:
(2) Writing a false or fictitious prescription for a controlled substance scheduled in §60A-2-1 et seq.;
(2) Writing a false or fictitious prescription for a controlled substance scheduled in §60A-2-201 et seq.
 §60A-2-201 et seq.
or (4) Diverting controlled substances prescribed for a patient to the physician’s own personal use.;
(4) Diverting controlled substances prescribed for a patient to the physician’s own personal use or (5) Abnormal or unusual prescribing or dispensing patterns, or both as identified by the Controlled Substance Monitoring Program set forth in §60A-9-1 et seq.
or (5) Abnormal or unusual prescribing or dispensing patterns, or both as identified by the Controlled Substance Monitoring Program set forth in §60A-9-1 et seq.
Construction of article.
This article may not be construed to legalize, condone, authorize or approve mercy killing or assisted suicide (a) Upon receipt of the quarterly report set forth in §60A-9-1 et seq.
 (a) Upon receipt of the quarterly report set forth in §60A-9-1 et seq.
(b) After reviewing any information obtained through an investigation, the board shall determine if probable cause exists that the licensee, certificate holder, or permittee has violated §30-4-19(a) of this section code or rules promulgated pursuant to this article.
(b) After reviewing any information obtained through an investigation, the board shall determine if probable cause exists that the licensee, certificate holder, or permittee has violated §30-4-19(a) of this code or rules promulgated pursuant to this article.
(d) Upon a finding that probable cause exists that the licensee, certificate holder, or permittee has violated §30-4-19(g) of this section code or rules promulgated pursuant to this article, the board may enter into a consent decree or hold a hearing for disciplinary action against the licensee, certificate holder, or permittee.
(d) Upon a finding that probable cause exists that the licensee, certificate holder, or permittee has violated §30-4-19(g) of this code or rules promulgated pursuant to this article, the board may enter into a consent decree or hold a hearing for disciplinary action against the licensee, certificate holder, or permittee.
(18) Failing to report to the board within 72 hours of becoming aware thereof of any life threatening occurrence, serious injury, or death of a patient resulting from dental treatment or complications following a dental procedure;
(18) Failing to report to the board within 72 hours of becoming aware of any life threatening occurrence, serious injury, or death of a patient resulting from dental treatment or complications following a dental procedure;
(i) For the purposes of §30-4-19(g) of this section code, effective July 1, 2013, disciplinary action may include:
(i) For the purposes of §30-4-19(g) of this code, disciplinary action may include:
(a) (2) Hold meetings;
(2) Hold meetings;
(b) (3) Establish additional requirements for a license, permit, and registration;
(3) Establish additional requirements for a license, permit, and registration;
(c) (4) Establish procedures for submitting, approving, and rejecting applications for a license, permit, and registration;
(4) Establish procedures for submitting, approving, and rejecting applications for a license, permit, and registration;
(d) (5) Determine the qualifications of any applicant for a license, permit, and registration;
(5) Determine the qualifications of any applicant for a license, permit, and registration;
(e) (6) Establish a fee schedule;
(6) Establish a fee schedule;
(f) (7) Issue, renew, deny, suspend, revoke, or reinstate a license, permit, and registration;
(7) Issue, renew, deny, suspend, revoke, or reinstate a license, permit, and registration;
(g) (8) Prepare, conduct, administer, and grade written, oral, or written and oral examinations for a license and registration and establish what constitutes passage of the examination;
(8) Prepare, conduct, administer, and grade written, oral, or written and oral examinations for a license and registration and establish what constitutes passage of the examination;
(h) (9) Contract with third parties to administer the examinations required under the provisions of this article;
(9) Contract with third parties to administer the examinations required under the provisions of this article;
(i) (10) Maintain records of the examinations the board or a third party administers, including the number of persons taking the examination and the pass and fail rate;
(10) Maintain records of the examinations the board or a third party administers, including the number of persons taking the examination and the pass and fail rate;
(j) (11) Regulate mail order pharmacies;
(11) Regulate mail order pharmacies;
(k) (12) Maintain an office, and hire, discharge, establish the job requirements, and fix the compensation of employees and contract with persons necessary to enforce the provisions of this article.
(12) Maintain an office, and hire, discharge, establish the job requirements, and fix the compensation of employees and contract with persons necessary to enforce the provisions of this article.
(l) (13) Investigate alleged violations of the provisions of this article, legislative rules, orders, and final decisions of the board;
(13) Investigate alleged violations of the provisions of this article, legislative rules, orders, and final decisions of the board;
(m) (14) Conduct disciplinary hearings of persons regulated by the board;
(14) Conduct disciplinary hearings of persons regulated by the board;
(n) (15) Determine disciplinary action and issue orders;
(15) Determine disciplinary action and issue orders;
(o) (16) Institute appropriate legal action for the enforcement of the provisions of this article;
(16) Institute appropriate legal action for the enforcement of the provisions of this article;
(p) (17) Maintain an accurate registry of names and addresses of all persons regulated by the board;
(17) Maintain an accurate registry of names and addresses of all persons regulated by the board;
(q) (18) Keep accurate and complete records of its proceedings, and certify the same as may be necessary and appropriate;
(18) Keep accurate and complete records of its proceedings, and certify the same as may be necessary and appropriate;
(r) (19) Propose rules in accordance with the provisions of §29A-3-1 et seq.
(19) Propose rules in accordance with the provisions of §29A-3-1 et seq.
(s) (20) Sue and be sued in its official name as an agency of this state;
(20) Sue and be sued in its official name as an agency of this state;
(t) (21) Confer with the Attorney General or his or her assistant in connection with legal matters and questions;
(21) Confer with the Attorney General or his or her assistant in connection with legal matters and questions;
and (u) (22) Take all other actions necessary and proper to effectuate the purposes of this article.
and (22) Take all other actions necessary and proper to effectuate the purposes of this article.
or (8) (9) Has willfully or repeatedly violated any of the provisions of this article.
or (9) Has willfully or repeatedly violated any of the provisions of this article.
(a) The board may upon its own motion based on credible information and or based upon the quarterly report from the Board of Pharmacy as required by §60A-9-1 et seq.
(a) The board may upon its own motion based on credible information or based upon the quarterly report from the Board of Pharmacy as required by §60A-9-1 et seq.
(c) After reviewing any information obtained through an investigation, the board shall determine if probable cause exists that the licensee or permittee has violated §30-8-18(g) of this section code or rules promulgated pursuant to this article.
(c) After reviewing any information obtained through an investigation, the board shall determine if probable cause exists that the licensee or permittee has violated §30-8-18(g) of this code or rules promulgated pursuant to this article.
(d) Upon a finding that probable cause exists that the licensee or permittee has violated §30-8-18(g) of this section code or rules promulgated pursuant to this article, the board may enter into a consent decree or hold a hearing for the suspension or revocation of the license, certificate, or permit or the imposition of sanctions against the licensee, certificate holder, or permittee.
(d) Upon a finding that probable cause exists that the licensee or permittee has violated §30-8-18(g) of this code or rules promulgated pursuant to this article, the board may enter into a consent decree or hold a hearing for the suspension or revocation of the license, certificate, or permit or the imposition of sanctions against the licensee, certificate holder, or permittee.
(h) For the purposes of §30-8-18(g) of this section code disciplinary action may include:
(h) For the purposes of §30-8-18(g) of this code disciplinary action may include:
(h) For the purposes of §30-10-19(g) of this section code, disciplinary action may include:
(h) For the purposes of §30-10-19(g) of this code, disciplinary action may include:
§30-14-12a.
§30-14-12a.  Initiation of suspension or revocation proceedings allowed and required;
 Initiation of suspension or revocation proceedings allowed and required;
of this code.
of this code.  After reviewing the record of such hearing, if the board determines that a violation of this subsection has occurred, the board shall assess a civil penalty of not less than $1,000 nor more than $10,000 against such violator.
 After reviewing the record of such hearing, if the board determines that a violation of this subsection has occurred, the board shall assess a civil penalty of not less than $1,000 nor more than $10,000 against such violator.
(c) In every case considered by the board under this article regarding suspension, revocation, or issuance of a license whether initiated by the board or upon complaint or information from any person or organization, the board shall make a preliminary determination as to whether probable cause exists to substantiate charges of cause to suspend, revoke, or refuse to issue a license as set forth in §30-14-11(a) of this article code.
(c) In every case considered by the board under this article regarding suspension, revocation, or issuance of a license whether initiated by the board or upon complaint or information from any person or organization, the board shall make a preliminary determination as to whether probable cause exists to substantiate charges of cause to suspend, revoke, or refuse to issue a license as set forth in §30-14-11(a) of this code.
(d) If the board receives notice that an osteopathic physician has been subjected to disciplinary action or has had his or her credentials suspended or revoked by the board, a medical peer review committee, a hospital or professional society, as defined in §30-14-12(a) of this section code, for three or more incidents in a five-year period, the board shall require the osteopathic physician to practice under the direction of another osteopathic physician for a specified period to be established by the board.
(d) If the board receives notice that an osteopathic physician has been subjected to disciplinary action or has had his or her credentials suspended or revoked by the board, a medical peer review committee, a hospital or professional society, as defined in §30-14-12(a) of this code, for three or more incidents in a five-year period, the board shall require the osteopathic physician to practice under the direction of another osteopathic physician for a specified period to be established by the board.
(1) (A) Stimulation of points of the body by the insertion of acupuncture needles;
(A) Stimulation of points of the body by the insertion of acupuncture needles;
(2) (B) The application of moxibustion;
(B) The application of moxibustion;
and (3) (C) Manual, mechanical, thermal, or electrical therapies only when performed in accordance with the principles of oriental acupuncture medical theories.
and (C) Manual, mechanical, thermal, or electrical therapies only when performed in accordance with the principles of oriental acupuncture medical theories.
§60A-5-509.  Unlawful retaliation against health care providers.                (a)  A health care provider has the right to exercise his or her professional judgment to decline to administer, dispense, or prescribe narcotics without being subject to actual or threatened acts of reprisal.  (b)  It shall be unlawful for any person or entity to engage in any form of threats or reprisal, or to engage in, or hire, or conspire with, others to commit acts or activities of any nature, the purpose of which is to punish, embarrass, deny, or reduce privileges or compensation, or cause economic loss or to aid, abet, incite, compel, or coerce any person to engage in such threats or reprisal, against a health care provider as a result of, or in retaliation for, the refusal of that health care provider to administer, dispense, or prescribe narcotics.  (c)  Any person or entity who violates the foregoing shall be subject to a private right of action by the affected health care provider and shall be liable in the amount of three times the economic loss sustained as a direct and proximate result of the reprisal.
§60A-5-509.  Unlawful retaliation against health care providers.                (a) A health care provider has the right to exercise his or her professional judgment to decline to administer, dispense, or prescribe narcotics without being subject to actual or threatened acts of reprisal.  (b) It shall be unlawful for any person or entity to engage in any form of threats or reprisal, or to engage in, or hire, or conspire with, others to commit acts or activities of any nature, the purpose of which is to punish, embarrass, deny, or reduce privileges or compensation, or cause economic loss or to aid, abet, incite, compel, or coerce any person to engage in such threats or reprisal, against a health care provider as a result of, or in retaliation for, the refusal of that health care provider to administer, dispense, or prescribe narcotics.  (c) Any person or entity who violates the foregoing shall be subject to a private right of action by the affected health care provider and shall be liable in the amount of three times the economic loss sustained as a direct and proximate result of the reprisal.
(d)  A health care provider that prevails in an action brought pursuant to this section shall be entitled to an award of costs and attorney fees.  ARTICLE 9.
(d) A health care provider that prevails in an action brought pursuant to this section shall be entitled to an award of costs and attorney fees.  ARTICLE 9.
Required information.  (a) Whenever a medical services provider dispenses a controlled substance listed in Schedule II, III or IV as established under the provisions of article two of this chapter or an opioid antagonist, or whenever a prescription for the controlled substance or opioid antagonist is filled by:
Required information.   (a) The following individuals shall report the required information to the Controlled Substances Monitoring Program Database when:
(i) A pharmacist or pharmacy in this state;
(ii) a hospital, or other health care facility, for outpatient use;
or (iii) a pharmacy or pharmacist licensed by the Board of Pharmacy, but situated outside this state for delivery to a person residing in this state, the medical services provider, health care facility, pharmacist or pharmacy shall, in a manner prescribed by rules promulgated by the Board of Pharmacy pursuant to this article, report the following information, as applicable:
(a) The following individuals shall report the required information to the Controlled Substances Monitoring Program Database when:
(b) (c) Whenever a medical services provider treats a patient for an overdose that has occurred as a result of illicit or prescribed medication, the medical service provider shall report the full legal name, address, and birth date of the person who is being treated, including any known ancillary evidence of the overdose.  The Board of Pharmacy shall coordinate with the Division of Justice and Community Services and the Office of Drug Control Policy regarding the collection of overdose data.  (c) (d) The Board of Pharmacy may prescribe by rule promulgated pursuant to this article the form to be used in prescribing a Schedule II, III, and IV substance or opioid antagonist if, in the determination of the Board of Pharmacy, the administration of the requirements of this section would be facilitated.
(c) Whenever a medical services provider treats a patient for an overdose that has occurred as a result of illicit or prescribed medication, the medical service provider shall report the full legal name, address, and birth date of the person who is being treated, including any known ancillary evidence of the overdose.  The Board of Pharmacy shall coordinate with the Division of Justice and Community Services and the Office of Drug Control Policy regarding the collection of overdose data.  (d) The Board of Pharmacy may prescribe by rule promulgated pursuant to this article the form to be used in prescribing a Schedule II, III, and IV substance or opioid antagonist if, in the determination of the Board of Pharmacy, the administration of the requirements of this section would be facilitated.
(d) (e) Products regulated by the provisions of §60A-10-1 et seq.
(e) Products regulated by the provisions of §60A-10-1 et seq.
(e) (f) Reporting required by this section is not required for a drug administered directly to a patient by a practitioner.
(f) Reporting required by this section is not required for a drug administered directly to a patient by a practitioner.
(f) (g) The Board of Pharmacy shall notify a physician prescribing buprenorphine or buprenorphine/naloxone within 60 days of the availability of an abuse deterrent or a practitioner-administered form of buprenorphine or buprenorphine/naloxone if approved by the Food and Drug Administration as provided in FDA Guidance to Industry.
(g) The Board of Pharmacy shall notify a physician prescribing buprenorphine or buprenorphine/naloxone within 60 days of the availability of an abuse deterrent or a practitioner-administered form of buprenorphine or buprenorphine/naloxone if approved by the Food and Drug Administration as provided in FDA Guidance to Industry.
Upon receipt of the notice, a physician may switch their his or her patients using buprenorphine or buprenorphine/naloxone to the abuse deterrent or a practitioner-administered form of the drug.
Upon receipt of the notice, a physician may switch his or her patients using buprenorphine or buprenorphine/naloxone to the abuse deterrent or a practitioner-administered form of the drug.
Provided, That the West Virginia Controlled Substances Monitoring Program Database Review Committee established in §30A-9-5(b) of this section code is authorized to query the database to comply with §30A-9-5(b) of this code.
Provided, That the West Virginia Controlled Substances Monitoring Program Database Review Committee established in §30A-9-5(b) of this code is authorized to query the database to comply with §30A-9-5(b) of this code.
(2) Subject to the provisions of §60A-9-5(a)(1) of this subsection code, the Board of Pharmacy shall also review the West Virginia Controlled Substances Monitoring Program Database and issue reports that identify abnormal or unusual practices of patients and practitioners with prescriptive authority who exceed parameters as determined by the advisory committee established in this section.
(2) Subject to the provisions of §60A-9-5(a)(1) of this code, the Board of Pharmacy shall also review the West Virginia Controlled Substances Monitoring Program Database and issue reports that identify abnormal or unusual practices of patients and practitioners with prescriptive authority who exceed parameters as determined by the advisory committee established in this section.
No individual or entity required to report under §60A-9-4 of this article code may be subject to a claim for civil damages or other civil relief for the reporting of information to the Board of Pharmacy as required under and in accordance with the provisions of this article.
No individual or entity required to report under §60A-9-4 of this code may be subject to a claim for civil damages or other civil relief for the reporting of information to the Board of Pharmacy as required under and in accordance with the provisions of this article.
(B) Recommend parameters to identify abnormal or unusual usage patterns of controlled substances for patients in order to prepare reports as requested in accordance with subdivision (2) of this subsection §60A-9-5(a)(2) of this code.
(B) Recommend parameters to identify abnormal or unusual usage patterns of controlled substances for patients in order to prepare reports as requested in accordance with §60A-9-5(a)(2) of this code.
(D) Monitor the ability of medical services providers, health care facilities, pharmacists, and pharmacies to meet the 24-hour reporting requirement for the Controlled Substances Monitoring Program set forth in section three of this article §60A-9-3 of this code, and report on the feasibility of requiring real-time reporting.
(D) Monitor the ability of medical services providers, health care facilities, pharmacists, and pharmacies to meet the 24-hour reporting requirement for the Controlled Substances Monitoring Program set forth in §60A-9-3 of this code, and report on the feasibility of requiring real-time reporting.
and (4) Dissemination of these reports at least quarterly to:
(4) Dissemination of these reports at least quarterly to:
and  (4) (5) Setting up processes and procedures to ensure that the privacy, confidentiality, and security of information collected, recorded, transmitted, and maintained by the review committee is not disclosed except as provided in this section.
and (5) Setting up processes and procedures to ensure that the privacy, confidentiality, and security of information collected, recorded, transmitted, and maintained by the review committee is not disclosed except as provided in this section.
(h) Nothing in the article may be construed to require a practitioner to access the West Virginia Controlled Substances Monitoring Program Database except as provided in section five-a of this article §60A-9-5 of this code.
(h) Nothing in the article may be construed to require a practitioner to access the West Virginia Controlled Substances Monitoring Program Database except as provided in §60A-9-5 of this code.
(b) Upon initially prescribing or dispensing any pain-relieving controlled substance for a patient for whom they are providing pain-relieving controlled substances as part of a course of treatment for chronic, nonmalignant pain but who are not suffering from a terminal illness and at least annually thereafter should the practitioner or dispenser continue to treat the patient with controlled substances,  all persons with prescriptive or dispensing authority and in possession of a valid Drug Enforcement Administration registration identification number and, who are licensed by the Board of Medicine as set forth in §30-3-1 et seq., the Board of Registered Professional Nurses as set forth in §30-7-1 et seq., the Board of Dental Examiners as set forth in §30-7-1 et seq., and the Board of Osteopathic Medicine as set forth in §30-14-1 et seq.
 (b) All persons with prescriptive or dispensing authority and in possession of a valid Drug Enforcement Administration registration identification number and who are licensed by the Board of Medicine as set forth in §30-3-1 et seq.
shall access the West Virginia Controlled Substances Monitoring Program database for information regarding specific patients.
The information obtained from accessing the West Virginia Controlled Substances Monitoring Program database for the patient shall be documented in the patient’s medical record maintained by a private prescriber or any inpatient facility licensed pursuant to the provisions of chapter sixteen of this code.
A pain-relieving controlled substance shall be defined as set forth in §30-3A-1.
(b) All persons with prescriptive or dispensing authority and in possession of a valid Drug Enforcement Administration registration identification number and who are licensed by the Board of Medicine as set forth in §30-3-1 et seq.
 (c) The various board boards mentioned in subsection (b) of this section §60A-9-5(b) of this code shall promulgate both emergency and legislative rules pursuant to the provisions of §29A-3-1 et seq.
 (c) The various boards mentioned in §60A-9-5(b) of this code shall promulgate both emergency and legislative rules pursuant to the provisions of §29A-3-1 et seq.
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Action History

  1. Chapter 46, Acts, Regular Session, 2018

  2. Approved by Governor 3/27/18

  3. To Governor 3/21/18

  4. Approved by Governor 3/27/18 - House Journal

  5. Approved by Governor 3/27/18 - Senate Journal

  6. To Governor 3/21/18 - Senate Journal

  7. To Governor 3/21/18 - House Journal

  8. House received Senate message

  9. Completed legislative action

  10. Communicated to House

  11. Senate concurred in House amendments and passed bill (Roll No. 457)

  12. House Message received

  13. Communicated to Senate

  14. Title amendment adopted (Voice vote)

  15. Passed House (Roll No. 399)

  16. Read 3rd time

  17. On 3rd reading, Special Calendar

  18. Amendment rejected (Roll No. 392)

  19. Amendment rejected (Roll No. 391)

  20. Committee amendment adopted (Voice vote)

  21. Read 2nd time

  22. Placed at foot of bills on 2nd reading

  23. On 2nd reading, Special Calendar

  24. Placed on Special Calender

  25. On 2nd reading, House Calendar

  26. Placed on House Calender

  27. On 2nd reading, Special Calendar

  28. Read 1st time

  29. On 1st reading, Special Calendar

  30. With amendment, do pass

  31. To House Judiciary

  32. With amendment, do pass, but first to Judiciary

  33. To House Health and Human Resources

  34. To Health and Human Resources then Judiciary

  35. Introduced in House

  36. Ordered to House

  37. Passed Senate with amended title (Roll No. 137)

  38. Read 3rd time

  39. Amended on 3rd reading (Voice vote)

  40. Unanimous consent to amend

  41. On 3rd reading

  42. Ferns Floor amendment adopted (Voice vote)

  43. Baldwin Floor amendment rejected (Roll No. 133)

  44. Stollings Amendment as amended adopted (Roll No. 132)

  45. Takubo Amendment to Stollings amendment adopted (Voice vote)

  46. Stollings Floor amendment reported

  47. Read 2nd time

  48. Laid over on 2nd reading 2/14/18

  49. On 2nd reading

  50. Read 1st time

  51. On 1st reading

  52. Committee substitute for committee substitute reported

  53. To Judiciary

  54. Committee substitute reported, but first to Judiciary

  55. To Health and Human Resources

  56. Introduced in Senate

  57. To Health and Human Resources then Judiciary

  58. Filed for introduction

Sponsors

  • Prezioso · Cosponsor
  • Carmichael · Primary

Sponsorship breakdown

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1 sponsors · 1 co-sponsors · 150 not signed on · 21 voted No

Sponsors (1)

  • Carmichael

Co-sponsors (1)

  • Prezioso

Not signed on (150)

150 members have not signed on to this bill.

Show all 150 →

"Not signed on" means a member has not sponsored or co-sponsored this bill — it does not imply opposition. Members flagged Voted No have a recorded No vote on this bill.

Whip count is in markup. Polling the chamber and every recorded vote this session. Only the first open is slow. It’s instant for you after this. Calling the roll · Tallying · Engrossing

Votes

PASSAGE

Passed 97 Yea · 1 Nay · 1 Other
Party YeaNayPresentNot Voting
Unaffiliated 68001
Republican 25100
Democrat 4000
Total 97101
% of votes cast 98%1%0%1%
How each member voted (99)
Member Party Vote
Lane — Yea
Romine, C. — Yea
Romine, R. — Yea
Foster — Yea
Blair — Yea
Martin — Yea
Maynard — Yea
Sypolt — Yea
Thompson — Yea
Hartman — Yea
Nelson — Yea
Atkinson — Yea
Bates — Yea
Boggs — Yea
Byrd — Yea
Capito — Yea
Caputo — Yea
Ferro — Yea
Folk — Yea
Frich — Yea
Graves — Yea
Harshbarger — Yea
Higginbotham — Yea
Kessinger — Yea
Longstreth — Yea
Lovejoy — Yea
Marcum — Yea
Overington — Yea
Shott — Yea
Sobonya — Yea
Storch — Yea
Summers — Yea
Upson — Yea
Wagner — Yea
Diserio — Yea
Phillips — Yea
Speaker Armstead — Yea
Evans, A. — Yea
Evans, E. — Yea
Deem — Not Voting
Espinosa — Yea
Hill — Yea
Householder — Yea
Iaquinta — Yea
Isner — Yea
Pack — Yea
Paynter — Yea
Pyles — Yea
Robinson — Yea
Rodighiero — Yea
Westfall — Yea
Ambler — Yea
Brewer — Yea
Canestraro — Yea
Cowles — Yea
Fast — Yea
Fleischauer — Yea
Hamrick — Yea
Hicks — Yea
Hollen — Yea
Love — Yea
Lynch — Yea
Miley — Yea
Moye — Yea
Pethtel — Yea
Rowan — Yea
Rowe — Yea
Sponaugle — Yea
Wilson — Yea
John Williams Democrat Yea
Mike Pushkin Democrat Yea
Sean Hornbuckle Democrat Yea
Shawn Fluharty Democrat Yea
Ben Queen Republican Yea
Betsy Kelly Republican Yea
Bill Hamilton Republican Yea
D. Rolland Jennings Republican Yea
Erica Moore Republican Yea
Gary G. Howell Republican Yea
George Miller Republican Yea
George Miller Republican Yea
Guy Ward Republican Yea
Jason Barrett Republican Yea
Jeff Campbell Republican Yea
Jeff Eldridge Republican Yea
Jim Butler Republican Yea
Joe Ellington Republican Yea
Joe Statler Republican Yea
Lisa White Republican Yea
Mark Dean Republican Yea
Mark Zatezalo Republican Yea
Marty Gearheart Republican Yea
Matthew Rohrbach Republican Yea
Pat McGeehan Republican Nay
Roger Hanshaw Republican Yea
Roy Cooper Republican Yea
Stanley Adkins Republican Yea
Vernon Criss Republican Yea
William Anderson Republican Yea

Official roll call →

HFA BYRD ET AL 3-7

Failed 37 Yea · 62 Nay · 1 Other
Party YeaNayPresentNot Voting
Unaffiliated 284101
Republican 52100
Democrat 4000
Total 376201
% of votes cast 37%62%0%1%
How each member voted (100)
Member Party Vote
Foster — Nay
Lane — Nay
Martin — Nay
Maynard — Nay
Blair — Nay
Sypolt — Nay
Nelson — Nay
Walters — Nay
Phillips — Nay
Evans, A. — Nay
Romine, C. — Nay
Speaker Armstead — Nay
Romine, R. — Nay
Evans, E. — Yea
Hartman — Yea
Atkinson — Nay
Bates — Yea
Boggs — Yea
Byrd — Yea
Cowles — Nay
Deem — Not Voting
Espinosa — Nay
Fast — Nay
Folk — Nay
Frich — Nay
Hamrick — Nay
Harshbarger — Nay
Higginbotham — Nay
Hollen — Nay
Householder — Nay
Isner — Nay
Lynch — Yea
Marcum — Yea
Overington — Nay
Pack — Nay
Robinson — Yea
Rowan — Nay
Rowe — Yea
Sobonya — Nay
Storch — Nay
Summers — Nay
Upson — Nay
Wagner — Nay
Westfall — Nay
Thompson — Yea
Diserio — Yea
Hicks — Yea
Paynter — Yea
Pethtel — Yea
Pyles — Yea
Ambler — Nay
Brewer — Yea
Canestraro — Yea
Capito — Nay
Caputo — Yea
Ferro — Yea
Fleischauer — Yea
Graves — Nay
Hill — Nay
Iaquinta — Yea
Kessinger — Nay
Longstreth — Yea
Love — Yea
Lovejoy — Yea
Miley — Yea
Moye — Yea
Rodighiero — Yea
Shott — Nay
Sponaugle — Yea
Wilson — Nay
John Williams Democrat Yea
Mike Pushkin Democrat Yea
Sean Hornbuckle Democrat Yea
Shawn Fluharty Democrat Yea
Ben Queen Republican Nay
Betsy Kelly Republican Nay
Bill Hamilton Republican Nay
D. Rolland Jennings Republican Nay
Erica Moore Republican Nay
Gary G. Howell Republican Nay
George Miller Republican Nay
George Miller Republican Yea
Guy Ward Republican Yea
Jason Barrett Republican Yea
Jeff Campbell Republican Yea
Jeff Eldridge Republican Yea
Jim Butler Republican Nay
Joe Ellington Republican Nay
Joe Statler Republican Nay
Lisa White Republican Nay
Mark Dean Republican Nay
Mark Zatezalo Republican Nay
Marty Gearheart Republican Nay
Matthew Rohrbach Republican Nay
Pat McGeehan Republican Nay
Roger Hanshaw Republican Nay
Roy Cooper Republican Nay
Stanley Adkins Republican Nay
Vernon Criss Republican Nay
William Anderson Republican Nay

Official roll call →

HFA HORNBUCKLE ET AL 3-6

Failed 36 Yea · 59 Nay · 5 Other
Party YeaNayPresentNot Voting
Unaffiliated 263905
Republican 62000
Democrat 4000
Total 365905
% of votes cast 36%59%0%5%
How each member voted (100)
Member Party Vote
Romine, R. — Nay
Foster — Nay
Lane — Nay
Martin — Nay
Maynard — Nay
Blair — Nay
Nelson — Nay
Sypolt — Nay
Phillips — Nay
Atkinson — Nay
Capito — Nay
Cowles — Nay
Folk — Nay
Frich — Nay
Graves — Nay
Hamrick — Nay
Harshbarger — Nay
Higginbotham — Nay
Hollen — Nay
Householder — Nay
Kessinger — Nay
Pack — Nay
Paynter — Nay
Rowan — Nay
Shott — Nay
Storch — Nay
Summers — Nay
Upson — Nay
Wagner — Nay
Evans, A. — Nay
Speaker Armstead — Nay
Romine, C. — Nay
Walters — Not Voting
Evans, E. — Yea
Hartman — Yea
Thompson — Yea
Diserio — Yea
Boggs — Yea
Brewer — Yea
Canestraro — Yea
Caputo — Yea
Fast — Nay
Hicks — Yea
Isner — Yea
Love — Yea
Lovejoy — Yea
Marcum — Not Voting
Miley — Yea
Pethtel — Yea
Robinson — Yea
Rodighiero — Yea
Rowe — Yea
Sponaugle — Yea
Wilson — Not Voting
Ambler — Nay
Bates — Yea
Byrd — Not Voting
Deem — Not Voting
Espinosa — Nay
Ferro — Yea
Fleischauer — Yea
Hill — Nay
Iaquinta — Yea
Longstreth — Yea
Lynch — Yea
Moye — Yea
Overington — Nay
Pyles — Yea
Sobonya — Nay
Westfall — Nay
John Williams Democrat Yea
Mike Pushkin Democrat Yea
Sean Hornbuckle Democrat Yea
Shawn Fluharty Democrat Yea
Ben Queen Republican Nay
Betsy Kelly Republican Nay
Bill Hamilton Republican Yea
D. Rolland Jennings Republican Nay
Erica Moore Republican Nay
Gary G. Howell Republican Nay
George Miller Republican Nay
George Miller Republican Yea
Guy Ward Republican Yea
Jason Barrett Republican Yea
Jeff Campbell Republican Yea
Jeff Eldridge Republican Yea
Jim Butler Republican Nay
Joe Ellington Republican Nay
Joe Statler Republican Nay
Lisa White Republican Nay
Mark Dean Republican Nay
Mark Zatezalo Republican Nay
Marty Gearheart Republican Nay
Matthew Rohrbach Republican Nay
Pat McGeehan Republican Nay
Roger Hanshaw Republican Nay
Roy Cooper Republican Nay
Stanley Adkins Republican Nay
Vernon Criss Republican Nay
William Anderson Republican Nay

Official roll call →

Passage

Passed 33 Yea · 0 Nay · 1 Other
Party YeaNayPresentNot Voting
Unaffiliated 30001
Republican 3000
Total 33001
% of votes cast 97%0%0%3%
How each member voted (34)
Member Party Vote
ARVON — Yea
GAUNCH — Yea
RUCKER — Yea
JEFFRIES — Yea
SMITH — Yea
BALDWIN — Yea
KARNES — Yea
STOLLINGS — Yea
BEACH — Yea
MANN — Yea
SWOPE — Yea
BLAIR — Yea
MARONEY — Not Voting
SYPOLT — Yea
BOLEY — Yea
MAYNARD — Yea
TAKUBO — Yea
BOSO — Yea
OJEDA — Yea
TRUMP — Yea
PALUMBO — Yea
UNGER — Yea
CLINE — Yea
PLYMALE — Yea
WELD — Yea
PREZIOSO — Yea
WOELFEL — Yea
FACEMIRE — Yea
ROMANO — Yea
MR PRESIDENT — Yea
FERNS — Yea
Charles H. Clements Republican Yea
Mike Azinger Republican Yea
Sarah Drennan Republican Yea

Official roll call →

Subjects

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Frequently asked questions

Who sponsors SB 273?
SB 273 is sponsored by Prezioso and Carmichael.
What is the current status of SB 273?
This bill has been enacted into law. Introduced January 15, 2018. Enacted.
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