Connecticut 2024 Regular Session Status: Enacted 1 R cosponsors

SB 212 — AN ACT CONCERNING THE REVISOR'S TECHNICAL CORRECTIONS TO THE GENERAL STATUTES.

Last action — SIGNED BY GOVERNOR

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  1. ✓
    Introduced
  2. ✓
    In Committee
  3. ✓
    Passed Senate
  4. ✓
    Passed House
  5. ✓
    To Executive
  6. 6
    Enacted

This bill has been enacted into law. Introduced February 22, 2024. Enacted.

Signed by Governor Ned Lamont (Democratic) on May 21, 2024.

Prognosis

Likely to advance 72% · moderate confidence

Where this bill stands today.

Odds of enactment

High

How often bills like it became law.

  • Enacted

    Current position in the legislative process.

  • 1 sponsor

    1 primary, 0 co-sponsors signed on.

  • Single-party support

    Sponsorship is currently within one party (1 R).

  • Cleared a recorded vote

    Passed 2 recorded votes so far.

Prognosis reads this bill's own signals — stage, sponsorship breadth, committee status, recorded votes and cross-state momentum. Odds come from a model trained on which bills have become law.

Bill Text

What changed in the latest version

1122 added · 1189 removed

1122 line(s) added, 1189 removed.

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Senate General Assembly File No.
Substitute Senate Bill No.
484 February Session, 2024 Substitute Senate Bill No.
212 Public Act No.
212 Senate, April 15, 2024 The Committee on Judiciary reportedthrough SEN.
24-24 AN ACT CONCERNING THE REVISOR'S TECHNICAL CORRECTIONS TO THE GENERAL STATUTES.
WINFIELD of the 10th Dist., Chairperson of the Committee on the part of the Senate, that the substitute bill ought to pass.
AN ACT CONCERNING THE REVISOR'S TECHNICAL CORRECTIONS TO THE GENERAL STATUTES.
Subsection (c) of section 4-186 of the general statutes is sSB212 / File No.
Subsection (c) of section 4-186 of the general statutes is repealed andthefollowing issubstituted inlieuthereof(EffectiveOctober Substitute Senate Bill No.
484 1 sSB212 File No.
212 1, 2024):
484 repealed andthefollowing issubstituted inlieuthereof(EffectiveOctober 1, 2024):
(c) The Employment Security Division, the Labor Commissioner or said commissioner's designee with respect to the Family and Medical LeaveInsuranceProgram,theBoardofMediationandArbitrationofthe state Labor Department, theOffice of theClaimsCommissioner,and the Workers' Compensation [Commissioner] Commission are exempt from the provisions of section 4-176e and sections 4-177 to 4-183, inclusive.
(c) The Employment Security Division, the Labor Commissioner or said commissioner's designee with respect to the Family and Medical LeaveInsuranceProgram,theBoardofMediationandArbitrationofthe state Labor Department,theOffice of theClaimsCommissioner,and the Workers' Compensation [Commissioner] Commission are exempt from the provisions of section 4-176e and sections 4-177 to 4-183, inclusive.
Subsection (b) of section 10-19m of the general statutes is repealed andthefollowing issubstituted inlieuthereof(EffectiveOctober 1, 2024):
Subsection (b) of section 10-19m of the general statutes is Public Act No.
sSB212 / File No.
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484 2 sSB212 File No.
212 repealed andthefollowing issubstituted inlieuthereof(EffectiveOctober 1, 2024):
484 (b) A youth service bureau established pursuant to subsection (a) of this section may provide, but shall not be limited to the delivery of, the following services:
(b) A youth service bureau established pursuant to subsection (a) of this section may provide, but shall not be limited to the delivery of, the following services:
(b) The Commissioner ofMentalHealthand AddictionServicesshall, notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this section, maintain information, in accordance with section 17a-499, on commitment orders by a probate court, section 17a-506a, on voluntary admissions, and section 17a-502, on commitment under an emergency certificate, and shall provide such information to the Commissioner of Emergency Services and Public Protection in fulfillment of the commissioner's obligations under sections 29-28 to 29-38, inclusive, as amended by this act, and section 53-202d, in such a manner as to report identifying information on the commitment or voluntary admission status, including, but not limited to, name, address, sex, date of birth and date of commitment or admission, for a person who applies for or holds a permit or certificate under said sections 29-28 to 29-38, inclusive, and section 53-202d.
(b) The Commissioner ofMentalHealthand AddictionServicesshall, notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this section, maintain information, in accordance with section 17a-499, on commitment orders by a probate court, section 17a-506a, on voluntary admissions, and section 17a-502, on commitment under an emergency certificate, and shall provide such information to the Commissioner of Emergency Services and Public Protection in fulfillment of the commissioner's obligations under sections 29-28 to 29-38, inclusive, as amended by this act, and section 53-202d, in such a manner as to report identifying information on the commitment or voluntary admission status, including, but not limited to, name, address, sex, date of birth and date of commitment or admission, for a person who applies for or Public Act No.
The Commissioner of Emergency Services and Public Protection shall maintain as confidential any such information providedto[him]thecommissionerandshall usesuchinformationonly for purposes of fulfilling [his] the commissioner's obligations under sSB212 / File No.
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212 holds a permit or certificate under said sections 29-28 to 29-38, inclusive, and section 53-202d.
484 sections 29-28 to 29-38, inclusive, as amended by this act, and section 53- 202d, except that nothing in this section shall prohibit said commissionerfromenteringsuchinformationintoevidenceatahearing held in accordance with section 29-32b.
The Commissioner of Emergency Services and Public Protection shall maintain as confidential any such information providedto[him]thecommissionerandshall usesuchinformationonly for purposes of fulfilling [his] the commissioner's obligations under sections 29-28 to 29-38, inclusive, as amended by this act, and section 53- 202d, except that nothing in this section shall prohibit said commissionerfromenteringsuchinformationintoevidenceatahearing held in accordance with section 29-32b.
Such examination may be conducted at a correctional facility if the defendant is confined or it may be conducted on an outpatient basis at the hospital or other appropriate location.
Such examination may be conducted at a correctional facility if the defendant is confined or it may be conducted on an outpatient basis at the hospital Public Act No.
If the report recommends additional examination at the diagnostic unit, the court may, after a hearing, order the convicted defendant committed to the diagnostic unit of the hospital for a period not to exceed sixty days, except as provided in section 17a- 567 provided the hearing may be waived by the defendant.
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212 or other appropriate location.
If the report recommends additional examination at the diagnostic unit, the court may, after a hearing, order the convicted defendant committed to the diagnostic unit of the hospital for a period not to exceed sixty days, except as provided in section 17a- provided the hearing may be waived by the defendant.
While confined in said diagnostic unit, the defendant shall be given a complete physical and sSB212 / File No.
While confined in said diagnostic unit, the defendant shall be given a complete physical and psychiatric examination by the staff of the unit and may receive medication and treatment without his consent.
484 4 sSB212 File No.
484 psychiatric examination by the staff of the unit and may receive medication and treatment without his consent.
(e) If physical custody of an animal has not been taken pursuant to subsection(a)or (b)ofthissection,and such officer hasreasonablecause to believe that an animal is neglected or is cruelly treated in violation of section 22-366, 22-415, 53-247, 53-248, 53-249, 53-249a, 53-250, 53-251, [or] 53-252 or 53a-73b, such officer may file a petition with the superior court which has venue over such matter or with the superior court for the judicial district of Hartford at Hartford, plainly stating such facts of neglect or cruel treatment as to bring the animal within the jurisdiction of the court and praying for appropriate action by the court to ensure thewelfare oftheanimal,including,but not limitedto,physicalremoval and temporary care and custody of the animal, an order to compel the owner of any such animal to provide care in a manner that the court determines is necessary, authorization of an animal control officer or regional animal control officer appointed pursuant to section 22-328, 22- sSB212 / File No.
(e) If physical custody of an animal has not been taken pursuant to subsection(a)or (b)ofthissection,and such officer hasreasonablecause to believe that an animal is neglected or is cruelly treated in violation of Public Act No.
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484 331 or 22-331a, as applicable, or a licensed veterinarian to provide care for the animal on site, vesting of ownership of the animal, the posting of a bond in accordance with subsection (f) of this section and the assessment of costs in accordance with subsection (h) of this section.
212 section 22-366, 22-415, 53-247, 53-248, 53-249, 53-249a, 53-250, 53-251, [or] 53-252 or 53a-73b, such officer may file a petition with the superior court which has venue over such matter or with the superior court for the judicial district of Hartford at Hartford, plainly stating such facts of neglect or cruel treatment as to bring the animal within the jurisdiction of the court and praying for appropriate action by the court to ensure thewelfare oftheanimal,including,but not limitedto,physicalremoval and temporary care and custody of the animal, an order to compel the owner of any such animal to provide care in a manner that the court determines is necessary, authorization of an animal control officer or regional animal control officer appointed pursuant to section 22-328, 22- or 22-331a, as applicable, or a licensed veterinarian to provide care for the animal on site, vesting of ownership of the animal, the posting of a bond in accordance with subsection (f) of this section and the assessment of costs in accordance with subsection (h) of this section.
If it appears from the allegations of the petition filed pursuant to this subsection and other affirmations of fact accompanying the petition, or provided subsequent thereto, that there is reasonable cause to find that the animal's condition or the circumstances surrounding its care require the immediate removal of the animal from the owner or owners or person having responsibility for the care of the animal to safeguard its welfare, the court shall issue an order vesting in some suitable state, municipal or other public or private agency or person the animal's temporary care and custody pending a hearing on the petition which hearing shall be held not later than ten days after the issuance of such order for such temporary care and custody.
If it appears from the allegations of the petition filed pursuant to this subsection and other affirmations of fact accompanying the petition, or provided subsequent thereto, that there is reasonable cause to find that the animal's condition or the circumstances surrounding its care require the immediate removal of the animal from the owner or owners or person having responsibility for the care of the animal to safeguard its welfare, the court shall issue an order vesting in some suitable state, municipal or other public or private agency or person the animal's temporary care and custody pending a hearing on the petition which hearing shall be held not later than ten days after the issuance of Public Act No.
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212 such order for such temporary care and custody.
(b) Upon the application of any person having a bona fide permanent residence within the jurisdiction of any such authority, such chief of police or, where there is no chief of police, such chief executive officer, as defined in section 7-193, or, if designated by such chief executive officer, a resident state trooper or state police officer, as applicable, may sSB212 / File No.
(b) Upon the application of any person having a bona fide permanent residence within the jurisdiction of any such authority, such chief of police or, where there is no chief of police, such chief executive officer, as defined in section 7-193, or, if designated by such chief executive officer, a resident state trooper or state police officer, as applicable, may issue a temporary state permit to such person to carry a pistol or revolver within the state, provided such authority shall find that such applicant intends to make no use of any pistol or revolver which such applicant may be permitted to carry under such permit other than a lawful use and that such person is a suitable person to receive such permit.
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484 issue a temporary state permit to such person to carry a pistol or revolver within the state, provided such authority shall find that such applicant intends to make no use of any pistol or revolver which such applicant may be permitted to carry under such permit other than a lawful use and that such person is a suitable person to receive such permit.
No state or temporary state permitto carryapistolorrevolvershallbeissuedunder this subsection if the applicant:
No state or temporary state permitto carryapistolorrevolvershallbeissuedunder Public Act No.
(1) (A) For any application filed prior to July 1, 2024, has failed to successfully complete a course approved by the Commissioner of Emergency Services and Public Protection in the safety and use of pistols and revolvers including, but not limited to, a safety or training course in the use of pistols and revolvers available to the public offered by a law enforcement agency, a private or public educationalinstitutionorafirearmstrainingschool,utilizinginstructors certified by the National Rifle Association or the Department of Energy and Environmental Protection and a safety or training course in the use of pistols or revolvers conducted by an instructor certified by the state or the National Rifle Association, and (B) for any application filed on or after July 1, 2024, has failed to successfully complete, not earlier than twoyearspriortothesubmissionofsuchapplication,acourseapproved by the Commissioner of Emergency Services and Public Protection in thesafety anduse offirearms,whichcourses may includethosecertified by the National Rifle Association or other organizations, conducted by sSB212 / File No.
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212 this subsection if the applicant:
484 an instructor certified by the National Rifle Association or by the state, providedany such course includesinstructionin state lawrequirements pertaining to safe storage in the home and in vehicles, lawful use of firearms and lawful carrying of firearms in public.
(1) (A) For any application filed prior to July 1, 2024, has failed to successfully complete a course approved by the Commissioner of Emergency Services and Public Protection in the safety and use of pistols and revolvers including, but not limited to, a safety or training course in the use of pistols and revolvers available to the public offered by a law enforcement agency, a private or public educationalinstitutionorafirearmstrainingschool,utilizinginstructors certified by the National Rifle Association or the Department of Energy and Environmental Protection and a safety or training course in the use of pistols or revolvers conducted by an instructor certified by the state or the National Rifle Association, and (B) for any application filed on or after July 1, 2024, has failed to successfully complete, not earlier than twoyearspriortothesubmissionofsuchapplication,acourseapproved by the Commissioner of Emergency Services and Public Protection in thesafety anduse offirearms,whichcourses may includethosecertified by the National Rifle Association or other organizations, conducted by an instructor certified by the National Rifle Association or by the state, providedany such course includesinstructionin state lawrequirements pertaining to safe storage in the home and in vehicles, lawful use of firearms and lawful carrying of firearms in public.
(4) has been discharged from custody within the preceding twenty years after having been found not guilty of a crime by reason of mental disease or defect pursuant to section 53a-13;
(4) has been discharged from custody within the preceding twenty years after having been found not guilty of a crime by Public Act No.
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212 reason of mental disease or defect pursuant to section 53a-13;
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(8) is prohibited from shipping, sSB212 / File No.
(8) is prohibited from shipping, transporting, possessing or receiving a firearm pursuant to 18 USC 922(g)(2), (g)(4) or (g)(9);
484 8 sSB212 File No.
484 transporting, possessing or receiving a firearm pursuant to 18 USC 922(g)(2), (g)(4) or (g)(9);
Upon issuance of a temporary state permit to carry a pistol or revolver to the applicant, the local authority, or the chief of police of a law enforcement unit of any federally recognized Native American tribe within the borders of the state as referenced in this subsection, shall forward the original application to the commissioner.
Upon Public Act No.
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212 issuance of a temporary state permit to carry a pistol or revolver to the applicant, the local authority, or the chief of police of a law enforcement unit of any federally recognized Native American tribe within the borders of the state as referenced in this subsection, shall forward the original application to the commissioner.
The copy of the state permit delivered to thepermitteeshallbelaminatedandshallcontainafull-facephotograph sSB212 / File No.
The copy of the state permit delivered to thepermitteeshallbelaminatedandshallcontainafull-facephotograph of such permittee.
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484 of such permittee.
Nosaleofanyfirearmshallbemadeexceptintheroom,storeorplace described in the permit for the sale of firearms, and such permit or a copy of such permit certified by the authority issuing the same shall be exposed to view within the room, store or place where firearms are sold or offered or exposed for sale.
Nosaleofanyfirearmshallbemadeexceptintheroom,storeorplace described in the permit for the sale of firearms, and such permit or a copy of such permit certified by the authority issuing the same shall be exposed to view within the room, store or place where firearms are sold Public Act No.
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212 or offered or exposed for sale.
A risk warrant issued under subsection (a) of this section may issue only on an affidavit sworn to by sSB212 / File No.
A risk warrant issued under subsection (a) of this section may issue only on an affidavit sworn to by the complainant before the judge establishing the grounds for issuing the warrant.
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484 the complainant before the judge establishing the grounds for issuing the warrant.
In evaluating whether such recent threats or acts of violence constitute probable cause to believe that such person poses a risk of imminent personal injury to such person's self or to others, the judge may consider other factors including, but not limited to, (A) the reckless use, display or brandishing of a firearmor other deadly weapon by such person, (B) a history of the use, attempted use or threatened use of physical force by such person against other persons, (C) prior involuntary confinement of such person in a hospital for persons with psychiatric disabilities, and (D) the illegal use of controlled substances or abuse of alcohol by such person.
In evaluating whether such recent threats or acts of violence Public Act No.
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212 constitute probable cause to believe that such person poses a risk of imminent personal injury to such person's self or to others, the judge may consider other factors including, but not limited to, (A) the reckless use, display or brandishing of a firearmor other deadly weapon by such person, (B) a history of the use, attempted use or threatened use of physical force by such person against other persons, (C) prior involuntary confinement of such person in a hospital for persons with psychiatric disabilities, and (D) the illegal use of controlled substances or abuse of alcohol by such person.
The order and warrant, if applicable, shall state the grounds or probable cause for issuance and, in the case of a warrant, the warrant shall command the officer to search within a reasonable time the person, place or thing named for any andallfirearms andother deadly weapons and ammunition.
The order and warrant, if applicable, shall state the grounds or probable cause for issuance and, in the case of a warrant, the warrant shall command the officer to search within a reasonable time the person, place or thing named for any andallfirearms and other deadly weapons and ammunition.
A copy of the order and warrant, if applicable, shall be served upon the person named in the order not later than three days prior to the hearing scheduled pursuant to subsection (e) of this section, together with a notice informing the person that such person has the right to a hearing under this section, the telephone number for the court clerk who can inform the person of the date and time of such hearing sSB212 / File No.
A copy of the order and warrant, if applicable, shall be served upon the person named in the order not later than three days prior to the hearing scheduled pursuant to subsection (e) of this section, together with a notice informing the person that such person has the right to a hearing under this section, the telephone number for the court clerk who can inform the person of the date and time of such hearing and the right to be represented by counsel at such hearing.
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484 and the right to be represented by counsel at such hearing.
(f)A riskprotectionorder [,]andwarrant,ifapplicable,shallcontinue to apply and the firearm or firearms or other deadly weapon or deadly weapons and any ammunition held pursuant to subsection (e) of this section shall continue to be held by the state until such time that the person named in the order and warrant, if applicable, successfully petitions the court to terminate such order and warrant, if applicable.
(f)A riskprotectionorder [,]andwarrant,ifapplicable,shallcontinue Public Act No.
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212 to apply and the firearm or firearms or other deadly weapon or deadly weapons and any ammunition held pursuant to subsection (e) of this section shall continue to be held by the state until such time that the person named in the order and warrant, if applicable, successfully petitions the court to terminate such order and warrant, if applicable.
If the court, following such hearing, finds by clear and convincing evidence that the petitioner poses a risk of imminent personal injury to such person's self or to another person, the order and sSB212 / File No.
If the court, following such hearing, finds by clear and convincing evidence that the petitioner poses a risk of imminent personal injury to such person's self or to another person, the order and warrant, if applicable, shall remain in effect.
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If the court finds that the state has failed to prove by clear and convincing evidence that the petitioner poses a risk of imminent personal injury to such person's self or to another person, the court shall terminate such order and warrant, Public Act No.
484 warrant, if applicable, shall remain in effect.
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If the court finds that the state has failed to prove by clear and convincing evidence that the petitioner poses a risk of imminent personal injury to such person's self or to another person, the court shall terminate such order and warrant, ifapplicable.
212 ifapplicable.
Subsection (g) of section 31-900 of the general statutes is repealed andthefollowing issubstituted inlieuthereof(EffectiveOctober 1, 2024):
Subsection (g) of section 31-900 of the general statutes is repealed andthefollowing issubstituted inlieu thereof(EffectiveOctober 1, 2024):
sSB212 / File No.
(g) For purposes of this section, a pending workers' compensation Public Act No.
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484 (g) For purposes of this section, a pending workers' compensation claim submitted by an affected person shall not prevent the administrator from approving such person's claim for assistance under this section, provided any workers' compensation benefits such affected person receives for the workers' compensation claim shall be offset by the amount of assistance such affected person receives for uncompensated leave under this section, as deemed appropriate by the presiding [workers' compensation commissioner] administrative law judge.
212 claim submitted by an affected person shall not prevent the administrator from approving such person's claim for assistance under this section, provided any workers' compensation benefits such affected person receives for the workers' compensation claim shall be offset by the amount of assistance such affected person receives for uncompensated leave under this section, as deemed appropriate by the presiding [workers' compensation commissioner] administrative law judge.
(6) "Discrimination" includes segregation and separation;
Public Act No.
sSB212 / File No.
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212 (6) "Discrimination" includes segregation and separation;
484 (7) "Discriminatory employment practice" means any discriminatory practice specified in subsection (b), (d), (e) or (f) of section 31-51i or section 46a-60 or 46a-81c;
(7) "Discriminatory employment practice" means any discriminatory practice specified in subsection (b), (d), (e) or (f) of section 31-51i or section 46a-60 or 46a-81c;
(12)"Labororganization"meansany organizationwhichexistsforthe purpose, in whole or in part, of collective bargaining or of dealing with employers concerning grievances, terms or conditions of employment, or of other mutual aid or protection in connection with employment;
(12)"Labororganization"meansanyorganizationwhichexistsforthe purpose, in whole or in part, of collective bargaining or of dealing with employers concerning grievances, terms or conditions of employment, or of other mutual aid or protection in connection with employment;
(14) "Person" means one or more individuals, partnerships, associations, corporations, limited liability companies, legal representatives, trustees, trustees in bankruptcy, receivers and the state and all political subdivisions and agencies thereof;
Public Act No.
sSB212 / File No.
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212 (14) "Person" means one or more individuals, partnerships, associations, corporations, limited liability companies, legal representatives, trustees, trustees in bankruptcy, receivers and the state and all political subdivisions and agencies thereof;
484 (15) "Physically disabled" refers to any individual who has any chronic physical handicap, infirmity or impairment, whether congenital or resulting from bodily injury, organic processes or changes or from illness, including, but not limited to, epilepsy, deafness or being hard of hearing or reliance on a wheelchair or other remedial appliance or device;
(15) "Physically disabled" refers to any individual who has any chronic physical handicap, infirmity or impairment, whether congenital or resulting from bodily injury, organic processes or changes or from illness, including, but not limited to, epilepsy, deafness or being hard of hearing or reliance on a wheelchair or other remedial appliance or device;
(20) "Mental disability" refers to an individual who has a record of, or is regarded as having one or more mental disorders, as defined in the most recent edition of the American Psychiatric Association's "Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders";
Public Act No.
[and] (21) "Gender identity or expression" means a person's gender-related identity, appearance or behavior, whether or not that gender-related sSB212 / File No.
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484 16 sSB212 File No.
212 (20) "Mental disability" refers to an individual who has a record of, or is regarded as having one or more mental disorders, as defined in the most recent edition of the American Psychiatric Association's "Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders";
484 identity, appearance or behavior is different from that traditionally associated with the person's physiology or assigned sex at birth, which gender-related identity can be shown by providing evidence including, but not limited to, medical history, care or treatment of the gender- related identity, consistent and uniform assertion of the gender-related identity or any other evidence that the gender-related identity is sincerely held, part of a person's core identity or not being asserted for an improper purpose;
[and] (21) "Gender identity or expression" means a person's gender-related identity, appearance or behavior, whether or not that gender-related identity, appearance or behavior is different from that traditionally associated with the person's physiology or assigned sex at birth, which gender-related identity can be shown by providing evidence including, but not limited to, medical history, care or treatment of the gender- related identity, consistent and uniform assertion of the gender-related identity or any other evidence that the gender-related identity is sincerely held, part of a person's core identity or not being asserted for an improper purpose;
Subsection (a) of section 46b-38j of the 2024 supplement to the general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2024):
Subsection (a) of section 46b-38j of the 2024 supplement to the Public Act No.
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212 general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2024):
(1) Policies and procedures used by law enforcement agencies when responding to incidents of family violence, including reviewing and updating the model law enforcement policy on family violence for the state established in section 46b-38b, (2) the accuracy of sSB212 / File No.
(1) Policies and procedures used by law enforcement agencies when responding to incidents of family violence, including reviewing and updating the model law enforcement policy on family violence for the state established in section 46b-38b, (2) the accuracy of data collected by the Department of Emergency Services and Public Protection under section 46b-38d, and the Court Support Services Division under section 46b-38f, and collecting and analyzing any additional data related to domestic violence and the criminal justice response available from Judicial Branch court operations, state's attorneys, public defenders, domestic violence advocates [,] or domestic violence offender programs;
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484 data collected by the Department of Emergency Services and Public Protection under section 46b-38d, and the Court Support Services Division under section 46b-38f, and collecting and analyzing any additional data related to domestic violence and the criminal justice response available from Judicial Branch court operations, state's attorneys, public defenders, domestic violence advocates [,] or domestic violence offender programs;
(11) programming offered to individuals convicted of a family violence crime and currently incarcerated with the Department of Correction;
(11) programming offered to individuals convicted of a family violence crime and currently incarcerated with the Public Act No.
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212 Department of Correction;
The Chief Court Administrator shall ensure that the domestic violence offender program standards, and any updates or revisions to such standards provided to the Chief Court Administrator by the Domestic Violence Criminal Justice Response and Enhancement Advisory Council, are accessible electronically on the Internet web site sSB212 / File No.
The Chief Court Administrator shall ensure that the domestic violence offender program standards, and any updates or revisions to such standards provided to the Chief Court Administrator by the Domestic Violence Criminal Justice Response and Enhancement Advisory Council, are accessible electronically on the Internet web site of the Judicial Branch.
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484 of the Judicial Branch.
(4) One person designated by the Hartford School District;
Public Act No.
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212 (4) One person designated by the Hartford School District;
and (8) Two persons representing the interests of students and families, sSB212 / File No.
and (8) Two persons representing the interests of students and families, one designated by the executive director of an organization in this state with the mission of stopping the criminalization of this state's children and one designated by the executive director of an organization in this state that advocates for legal rights for the most vulnerable children in this state.
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484 one designated by the executive director of an organization in this state with the mission of stopping the criminalization of this state's children and one designated by the executive director of an organization in this state that advocates for legal rights for the most vulnerable children in this state.
(ii) A detailed description of how educational services will be provided to children in justice system custody and how education- related supports will be provided to children during transition out of justice system custody, either directly by the single state agency identified by the plan pursuant to clause (i) of this subparagraph or through a state-wide contract with a single nonprofit provider;
(ii) A detailed description of how educational services will be provided to children in justice system custody and how education- related supports will be provided to children during transition out of justice system custody, either directly by the single state agency Public Act No.
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212 identified by the plan pursuant to clause (i) of this subparagraph or through a state-wide contract with a single nonprofit provider;
The sSB212 / File No.
The accountability and quality control system shall include, but need not be limited to:
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484 accountability and quality control system shall include, but need not be limited to:
the percentage of students pursuing a high school diploma, an industry-based certification, a recognized high school diploma equivalent, credits for advanced courses and post- secondary educationprograms;performance ineducating children with exceptionalities, including identification of special education needs, the development of best-practices for individualized education programs and the provision of services and supports mandated by individualized education programs;
the percentage of students pursuing a high school diploma, an industry-based certification, a recognized high school diploma equivalent, credits for advanced courses and post- Public Act No.
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212 secondary educationprograms;performance ineducating children with exceptionalities, including identification of special education needs, the development of best-practices for individualized education programs and the provision of services and supports mandated by individualized education programs;
The monitoring shall occur at least sSB212 / File No.
The monitoring shall occur at least annually, and shall be conducted by experts in special education and education in justice-system settings;
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484 annually, and shall be conducted by experts in special education and education in justice-system settings;
(I) The engagement of one or more curriculum development specialists to support learning in schools serving children in justice system custody and to develop a flexible, high-interest, modular curriculum that is aligned with state standards and adapted to the context of educating children in justice system custody;
Public Act No.
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212 (I) The engagement of one or more curriculum development specialists to support learning in schools serving children in justice system custody and to develop a flexible, high-interest, modular curriculum that is aligned with state standards and adapted to the context of educating children in justice system custody;
sSB212 / File No.
(viii) Recommendations for any legislation that may be necessary or appropriate to implement the provisions of the plan developed pursuant to this subsection;
484 22 sSB212 File No.
484 (viii) Recommendations for any legislation that may be necessary or appropriate to implement the provisions of the plan developed pursuant to this subsection;
(B)Theplandevelopedpursuanttothissubsectionshallbesubmitted on or before January 1, 2020, to the joint standing committee of the General Assembly having cognizance of matters relating to education, in accordance with the provisions of section 11-4a.
(B)Theplandevelopedpursuanttothissubsectionshallbesubmitted on or before January 1, 2020, to the joint standing committee of the General Assembly having cognizance of matters relating to education, Public Act No.
24-24 24 of 36 Substitute Senate Bill No.
212 in accordance with the provisions of section 11-4a.
Subdivision (3) of subsection (k) of section 46b-128a of the 2024 supplement to the general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2024):
Subdivision (3) of subsection (k) of section 46b-128a of the supplement to the general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2024):
If during the period of suspension, the child or youth or the parent or guardian of the child or youth does not comply with the requirements set forth intheplan for services, the court may hold a hearing to determine whether the court should follow the procedure under subparagraph (B) of subdivision (1) of this subsection sSB212 / File No.
If during the period of suspension, the child or youth or the parent or guardian of the child or youth does not comply with the requirements set forth intheplan for services, the court may hold a hearing to determine whether the court should follow the procedure under subparagraph (B) of subdivision (1) of this subsection for instituting a petition alleging that a child is neglected, uncared for or abused.
484 23 sSB212 File No.
484 for instituting a petition alleging that a child is neglected, uncared for or abused.
Section 47a-71a of the 2024 supplement to the general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2024):
Section 47a-71a of the 2024 supplement to the general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective Public Act No.
24-24 25 of 36 Substitute Senate Bill No.
212 October 1, 2024):
(b)Notwithstandinganyprovisionofthegeneralstatutes,anyperson who is alleged to have committed (1) a violation under the provisions of section 1-9, 1-10, 1-11, 2-71h, 4b-13, 7-13, 7-14, 7-35 or 7-41, subsection (c) of section 7-66, section 7-83, 7-147h, 7-148, 7-283, 7-325, 7-393, 8-12, 8-25, 8-27, 9-63, 9-322, 9-350, 10-185, 10-193, 10-197, 10-198, 10-230, 10-251, 10- sSB212 / File No.
(b)Notwithstandinganyprovisionofthegeneralstatutes,anyperson who is alleged to have committed (1) a violation under the provisions of section 1-9, 1-10, 1-11, 2-71h, 4b-13, 7-13, 7-14, 7-35 or 7-41, subsection (c) of section 7-66, section 7-83, 7-147h, 7-148, 7-283, 7-325, 7-393, 8-12, 8-25, 8-27, 9-63, 9-322, 9-350, 10-185, 10-193, 10-197, 10-198, 10-230, 10-251, 10- 254, 10a-35, 12-52, 12-54, 12-129b or 12-170aa, subdivision (3) of subsection (e) of section 12-286, section 12-286a, 12-292, 12-314b or 12- 326g, subdivision (4) of section 12-408, subdivision (3), (5) or (6) of section 12-411, section 12-435c, 12-476a, 12-476b, 12-476c, 12-487, [13a- Public Act No.
484 24 sSB212 File No.
24-24 26 of 36 Substitute Senate Bill No.
484 254, 10a-35, 12-52, 12-54, 12-129b or 12-170aa, subdivision (3) of subsection (e) of section 12-286, section 12-286a, 12-292, 12-314b or 12- 326g, subdivision (4) of section 12-408, subdivision (3), (5) or (6) of section 12-411, section 12-435c, 12-476a, 12-476b, 12-476c, 12-487, [13a- 266] 13a-26b, 13a-71, 13a-107, 13a-113, 13a-114, 13a-115, 13a-117b, 13a- 123, 13a-124, 13a-139, 13a-140, 13a-143b, 13a-253, 13a-263 or 13b-39f, subsection (f) of section 13b-42, section 13b-90 or 13b-100, subsection (a) of section 13b-108, section 13b-221 or 13b-292, subsection (a) or (b) of section 13b-324, section 13b-336, 13b-337, 13b-338, 13b-410a, 13b-410b or 13b-410c, subsection (a), (b) or (c) of section 13b-412, section 13b-414 or 14-4, subdivision (2) of subsection (a) of section 14-12, subsection (d) of section 14-12, subsection (f) of section 14-12a, subsection (a) of section 14-15a, section 14-16c, 14-20a or 14-27a, subsection (f) of section 14-34a, subsection (d) of section 14-35, section 14-43, 14-44j, 14-49, 14-50a, 14-58 or 14-62a, subsection (b) of section 14-66, section 14-66a or 14-67a, subsection (g) of section 14-80, subsection (f) or (i) of section 14-80h, section 14-97a or 14-98, subsection (a), (b) or (d) of section 14-100a, section 14-100b, 14-103a, 14-106a, 14-106c, 14-145a, 14-146, 14-152, 14- 153, 14-161 or 14-163b, subsection (f) of section 14-164i, section 14-213b or 14-219, subdivision (1) of section 14-223a, subsection (d) of section 14- 224, section 14-240, 14-250, 14-253a, 14-261a, 14-262, 14-264, 14-266, 14- 267a, 14-269, 14-270, 14-272b, 14-274, 14-275 or 14-275a, subsection (c) of section 14-275c, section 14-276, subsection (a) or (b) of section 14-277, section 14-278, 14-279 or 14-280, subsection (b), (e) or (h) of section 14- 283,section14-283d,14-283e,14-283f,14-283g,14-291,14-293b,14-296aa, 14-298a, 14-300, 14-300d, 14-300f, 14-319, 14-320, 14-321, 14-325a, 14-326, 14-330 or 14-332a, subdivision (1), (2) or (3) of section 14-386a, section 15-15e, 15-25 or 15-33, subdivision (1) of section 15-97, subsection (a) of section 15-115, section 16-15, 16-16, 16-44, 16-256e, 16-278 or 16a-15, subsection (a) of section 16a-21, section 16a-22, subsection (a) or (b) of section 16a-22h, section 16a-106, 17a-24, 17a-145, 17a-149 or 17a-152, subsection (b) of section 17a-227, section 17a-465, subsection (c) of section 17a-488, section 17b-124, 17b-131, 17b-137, 19a-33, 19a-39 or 19a- 87, subsection (b) of section 19a-87a, section 19a-91, 19a-102a, 19a-102b, 19a-105, 19a-107, 19a-113, 19a-215, 19a-216a, 19a-219, 19a-222, 19a-224, sSB212 / File No.
212 266] 13a-26b, 13a-71, 13a-107, 13a-113, 13a-114, 13a-115, 13a-117b, 13a- 123, 13a-124, 13a-139, 13a-140, 13a-143b, 13a-253, 13a-263 or 13b-39f, subsection (f) of section 13b-42, section 13b-90 or 13b-100, subsection (a) of section 13b-108, section 13b-221 or 13b-292, subsection (a) or (b) of section 13b-324, section 13b-336, 13b-337, 13b-338, 13b-410a, 13b-410b or 13b-410c, subsection (a), (b) or (c) of section 13b-412, section 13b-414 or 14-4, subdivision (2) of subsection (a) of section 14-12, subsection (d) of section 14-12, subsection (f) of section 14-12a, subsection (a) of section 14-15a, section 14-16c, 14-20a or 14-27a, subsection (f) of section 14-34a, subsection (d) of section 14-35, section 14-43, 14-44j, 14-49, 14-50a, 14-58 or 14-62a, subsection (b) of section 14-66, section 14-66a or 14-67a, subsection (g) of section 14-80, subsection (f) or (i) of section 14-80h, section 14-97a or 14-98, subsection (a), (b) or (d) of section 14-100a, section 14-100b, 14-103a, 14-106a, 14-106c, 14-145a, 14-146, 14-152, 14- 153, 14-161 or 14-163b, subsection (f) of section 14-164i, section 14-213b or 14-219, subdivision (1) of section 14-223a, subsection (d) of section 14- 224, section 14-240, 14-250, 14-253a, 14-261a, 14-262, 14-264, 14-266, 14- 267a, 14-269, 14-270, 14-272b, 14-274, 14-275 or 14-275a, subsection (c) of section 14-275c, section 14-276, subsection (a) or (b) of section 14-277, section 14-278, 14-279 or 14-280, subsection (b), (e) or (h) of section 14- 283,section14-283d,14-283e,14-283f,14-283g,14-291,14-293b,14-296aa, 14-298a, 14-300, 14-300d, 14-300f, 14-319, 14-320, 14-321, 14-325a, 14-326, 14-330 or 14-332a, subdivision (1), (2) or (3) of section 14-386a, section 15-15e, 15-25 or 15-33, subdivision (1) of section 15-97, subsection (a) of section 15-115, section 16-15, 16-16, 16-44, 16-256e, 16-278 or 16a-15, subsection (a) of section 16a-21, section 16a-22, subsection (a) or (b) of section 16a-22h, section 16a-106, 17a-24, 17a-145, 17a-149 or 17a-152, subsection (b) of section 17a-227, section 17a-465, subsection (c) of section 17a-488, section 17b-124, 17b-131, 17b-137, 19a-33, 19a-39 or 19a- 87, subsection (b) of section 19a-87a, section 19a-91, 19a-102a, 19a-102b, 19a-105, 19a-107, 19a-113, 19a-215, 19a-216a, 19a-219, 19a-222, 19a-224, 19a-286, 19a-287, 19a-297, 19a-301, 19a-309, 19a-335, 19a-336, 19a-338, 19a-339, 19a-340, 19a-425, 19a-442, 19a-502, 19a-565, 20-7a, 20-14, 20- Public Act No.
484 25 sSB212 File No.
24-24 27 of 36 Substitute Senate Bill No.
484 19a-286, 19a-287, 19a-297, 19a-301, 19a-309, 19a-335, 19a-336, 19a-338, 19a-339, 19a-340, 19a-425, 19a-442, 19a-502, 19a-565, 20-7a, 20-14, 20- 153a, 20-158, 20-231, 20-233, 20-249, 20-257, 20-265, 20-324e, 20-329c or 20-329g, subsection (b) of section 20-334, section 20-341l, 20-366, 20-482, 20-597, 20-608, 20-610, 20-623, 21-1, 21-38, 21-39, 21-43, 21-47, 21-48 or 21-63, subsection (d) of section 21-71, section 21-76a or 21-100, subsection (c) of section 21a-2, subdivision (1) of section 21a-19, section 21a-20 or 21a-21, subdivision (1) of subsection (b) of section 21a-25, section 21a-26 or 21a-30, subsection (a) of section 21a-37, section 21a-46, 21a-61, 21a-63, 21a-70b or 21a-77, subsection (b) or (c) of section 21a-79, section21a-85 or 21a-154,subdivision(1)ofsubsection(a)ofsection21a- 159, section 21a-278b, subsection (c), (d) or (e) of section 21a-279a, section 21a-421eee, 21a-421fff, 21a-421hhh, subsection (a) of section 21a- 430, section 22-12b, 22-13, 22-14, 22-15, 22-16, 22-26g, 22-30, 22-34, 22-35, 22-36, 22-38, 22-39, 22-39f, 22-49, 22-54, 22-61j or 22-61l, subdivision (1) of subsection (n) of section 22-61l, subsection (f) of section 22-61m, subdivision (1) of subsection (f) of section 22-61m, section 22-84, 22-89, 22-90, 22-96, 22-98, 22-99, 22-100 or 22-111o, subsection (d) of section 22- 118l, section 22-167, subsection (c) of section 22-277, section 22-278, 22- 279, 22-280a, 22-318a, 22-320h, 22-324a or 22-326, subsection (b), subdivision (1) or (2) ofsubsection (e) or subsection (g) of section22-344, subsection (a) or (b) ofsection 22-344b, subsection (d) of section 22-344d, section 22-344f, 22-350a, 22-354, 22-359, 22-366, 22-391, 22-413, 22-414, 22-415, 22-415c, 22a-66a or 22a-246, subsection (a) of section 22a-250, section 22a-256g, subsection (e) of section 22a-256h, section 22a-363 or 22a-381d, subsections (c) and (d) of section 22a-381e, section 22a-449, 22a-450, 22a-461, 23-4b, 23-38, 23-45, 23-46 or 23-61b, subsection (a) or subdivision (1) of subsection (c) of section 23-65, section 25-37 or 25-40, subsection (a) of section 25-43, section 25-43d, 25-135, 26-18, 26-19, 26- 21, 26-31, 26-40, 26-40a, 26-42, 26-43, 26-49, 26-54, 26-55, 26-56, 26-58 or 26-59, subdivision (1) of subsection (d) of section 26-61, section 26-64, subdivision (1) of section 26-76, section 26-79, 26-87, 26-89, 26-91, 26-94, 26-97, 26-98, 26-104, 26-105, 26-107, 26-114a, 26-117, subsection (b) of section 26-127, 26-128, 26-128a, 26-131, 26-132, 26-138, 26-139 or 26-141, subdivision (1) of section 26-186, section 26-207, 26-215, 26-217 or 26- sSB212 / File No.
212 153a, 20-158, 20-231, 20-233, 20-249, 20-257, 20-265, 20-324e, 20-329c or 20-329g, subsection (b) of section 20-334, section 20-341l, 20-366, 20-482, 20-597, 20-608, 20-610, 20-623, 21-1, 21-38, 21-39, 21-43, 21-47, 21-48 or 21-63, subsection (d) of section 21-71, section 21-76a or 21-100, subsection (c) of section 21a-2, subdivision (1) of section 21a-19, section 21a-20 or 21a-21, subdivision (1) of subsection (b) of section 21a-25, section 21a-26 or 21a-30, subsection (a) of section 21a-37, section 21a-46, 21a-61, 21a-63, 21a-70b or 21a-77, subsection (b) or (c) of section 21a-79, section21a-85 or 21a-154, subdivision(1)ofsubsection(a)ofsection21a- 159, section 21a-278b, subsection (c), (d) or (e) of section 21a-279a, section 21a-421eee, 21a-421fff, 21a-421hhh, subsection (a) of section 21a- 430, section 22-12b, 22-13, 22-14, 22-15, 22-16, 22-26g, 22-30, 22-34, 22-35, 22-36, 22-38, 22-39, 22-39f, 22-49, 22-54, 22-61j or 22-61l, subdivision (1) of subsection (n) of section 22-61l, subsection (f) of section 22-61m, subdivision (1) of subsection (f) of section 22-61m, section 22-84, 22-89, 22-90, 22-96, 22-98, 22-99, 22-100 or 22-111o, subsection (d) of section 22- 118l, section 22-167, subsection (c) of section 22-277, section 22-278, 22- 279, 22-280a, 22-318a, 22-320h, 22-324a or 22-326, subsection (b), subdivision (1) or (2) ofsubsection (e) or subsection (g) of section22-344, subsection (a) or (b) ofsection 22-344b, subsection (d) of section 22-344d, section 22-344f, 22-350a, 22-354, 22-359, 22-366, 22-391, 22-413, 22-414, 22-415, 22-415c, 22a-66a or 22a-246, subsection (a) of section 22a-250, section 22a-256g, subsection (e) of section 22a-256h, section 22a-363 or 22a-381d, subsections (c) and (d) of section 22a-381e, section 22a-449, 22a-450, 22a-461, 23-4b, 23-38, 23-45, 23-46 or 23-61b, subsection (a) or subdivision (1) of subsection (c) of section 23-65, section 25-37 or 25-40, subsection (a) of section 25-43, section 25-43d, 25-135, 26-18, 26-19, 26- 21, 26-31, 26-40, 26-40a, 26-42, 26-43, 26-49, 26-54, 26-55, 26-56, 26-58 or 26-59, subdivision (1) of subsection (d) of section 26-61, section 26-64, subdivision (1) of section 26-76, section 26-79, 26-87, 26-89, 26-91, 26-94, 26-97, 26-98, 26-104, 26-105, 26-107, 26-114a, 26-117, subsection (b) of section 26-127, 26-128, 26-128a, 26-131, 26-132, 26-138, 26-139 or 26-141, subdivision (1) of section 26-186, section 26-207, 26-215, 26-217 or 26- Public Act No.
484 26 sSB212 File No.
24-24 28 of 36 Substitute Senate Bill No.
484 224a, subdivision (1) of section 26-226, section 26-227, 26-230, 26-231, 26- 232, 26-244, 26-257a, 26-260, 26-276, 26-280, 26-284, 26-285, 26-286, 26- 287, 26-288, 26-290, 26-291a, 26-292, 26-294, 27-107, 28-13, 29-6a, 29-16, 29-17, 29-25, 29-143o, 29-143z or 29-156a, subsection (b), (d), (e), (g) or (h) of section 29-161q, section 29-161y or 29-161z, subdivision (1) of section 29-198, section 29-210, 29-243 or 29-277, subsection (c) of section 29-291c, section 29-316 or 29-318, subsection (b) of section 29-335a, section 29-381, 30-19f, 30-48a or 30-86a, subsection (b) of section 30-89, subsection (c) or (d) of section 30-117, section 31-3, 31-10, 31-11, 31-12, 31-13, 31-14, 31-15, 31-16, 31-18, 31-23, 31-24, 31-25, 31-32, 31-36, 31-47 or 31-48, subsection (b) of section 31-48b, section 31-51, 31-51g, 31-52, 31- 52a, 31-53 or 31-54, subsection (a) or (c) of section 31-69, section 31-70, 31-74, 31-75, 31-76, 31-76a, 31-89b or 31-134, subsection (i) of section 31- 273, section 31-288, 31-348, 33-624, 33-1017, 34-13d or 34-412, subdivision (1) of section 35-20, subsection (a) of section 36a-57, subsection (b) of section 36a-665, section 36a-699, 36a-739, 36a-787, 38a- 2 or 38a-140, subsection (a) or (b) of section 38a-278, section 38a-479qq, 38a-479rr, 38a-506, 38a-548, 38a-626, 38a-680, 38a-713, 38a-733, 38a-764, 38a-786, 38a-828, 38a-829, 38a-885, 42-133hh, 42-230, 42-470 or 42-480, subsection (a) or (c) of section 43-16q, section 45a-283, 45a-450, 45a-634 or 45a-658, subdivision (13) or (14) of section 46a-54, section 46a-59, 46a- 81b, 46b-22, 46b-24, 46b-34, 46b-38d, 47-34a, 47-47 or 47-53, subsection (i) of section 47a-21, subdivision (1) of subsection (k) of section 47a-21, section 49-2a, 49-8a, 49-16, 52-143 or 52-289, subsection (j) of section 52- 362, section 53-133, 53-199, 53-212a, 53-249a, 53-252, 53-264, 53-280, 53- 290a, 53-302a, 53-303e, 53-311a, 53-314, 53-321, 53-322, 53-323 or 53-331, subsection (b) of section 53-343a, section 53-344, subsection (b) or (c) of section 53-344b, subsection (b) of section 53-345a, section 53-377, 53-422 or 53-450 or subsection (i) of section 54-36a, or (2) a violation under the provisions of chapter 268, or (3) a violation of any regulation adopted in accordance with the provisions of section 12-484, 12-487 or 13b-410, or (4) a violation of any ordinance, regulation or bylaw of any town, city or borough, except violations of building codes and the health code, for which the penalty exceeds ninety dollars but does not exceed two hundred fifty dollars, unless such town, city or borough has established sSB212 / File No.
212 224a, subdivision (1) of section 26-226, section 26-227, 26-230, 26-231, 26- 232, 26-244, 26-257a, 26-260, 26-276, 26-280, 26-284, 26-285, 26-286, 26- 287, 26-288, 26-290, 26-291a, 26-292, 26-294, 27-107, 28-13, 29-6a, 29-16, 29-17, 29-25, 29-143o, 29-143z or 29-156a, subsection (b), (d), (e), (g) or (h) of section 29-161q, section 29-161y or 29-161z, subdivision (1) of section 29-198, section 29-210, 29-243 or 29-277, subsection (c) of section 29-291c, section 29-316 or 29-318, subsection (b) of section 29-335a, section 29-381, 30-19f, 30-48a or 30-86a, subsection (b) of section 30-89, subsection (c) or (d) of section 30-117, section 31-3, 31-10, 31-11, 31-12, 31-13, 31-14, 31-15, 31-16, 31-18, 31-23, 31-24, 31-25, 31-32, 31-36, 31-47 or 31-48, subsection (b) of section 31-48b, section 31-51, 31-51g, 31-52, 31- 52a, 31-53 or 31-54, subsection (a) or (c) of section 31-69, section 31-70, 31-74, 31-75, 31-76, 31-76a, 31-89b or 31-134, subsection (i) of section 31- 273, section 31-288, 31-348, 33-624, 33-1017, 34-13d or 34-412, subdivision (1) of section 35-20, subsection (a) of section 36a-57, subsection (b) of section 36a-665, section 36a-699, 36a-739, 36a-787, 38a- or 38a-140, subsection (a) or (b) of section 38a-278, section 38a-479qq, 38a-479rr, 38a-506, 38a-548, 38a-626, 38a-680, 38a-713, 38a-733, 38a-764, 38a-786, 38a-828, 38a-829, 38a-885, 42-133hh, 42-230, 42-470 or 42-480, subsection (a) or (c) of section 43-16q, section 45a-283, 45a-450, 45a-634 or 45a-658, subdivision (13) or (14) of section 46a-54, section 46a-59, 46a- 81b, 46b-22, 46b-24, 46b-34, 46b-38d, 47-34a, 47-47 or 47-53, subsection (i) of section 47a-21, subdivision (1) of subsection (k) of section 47a-21, section 49-2a, 49-8a, 49-16, 52-143 or 52-289, subsection (j) of section 52- 362, section 53-133, 53-199, 53-212a, 53-249a, 53-252, 53-264, 53-280, 53- 290a, 53-302a, 53-303e, 53-311a, 53-314, 53-321, 53-322, 53-323 or 53-331, subsection (b) of section 53-343a, section 53-344, subsection (b) or (c) of section 53-344b, subsection (b) of section 53-345a, section 53-377, 53-422 or 53-450 or subsection (i) of section 54-36a, or (2) a violation under the provisions of chapter 268, or (3) a violation of any regulation adopted in accordance with the provisions of section 12-484, 12-487 or 13b-410, or (4) a violation of any ordinance, regulation or bylaw of any town, city or borough, except violations of building codes and the health code, for Public Act No.
484 27 sSB212 File No.
24-24 29 of 36 Substitute Senate Bill No.
484 a payment and hearing procedure for such violation pursuant to section 7-152c, shall follow the procedures set forth in this section.
212 which the penalty exceeds ninety dollars but does not exceed two hundred fifty dollars, unless such town, city or borough has established a payment and hearing procedure for such violation pursuant to section 7-152c, shall follow the procedures set forth in this section.
(1) Share a photographic or other recorded image of the minor for the purpose of providing sexual gratification to the person who requests that the image be shared, (2) share a photographic or other recorded image of the minor, which the person who requests the image then disseminates to one or more third persons for the purpose of providing sexual gratification to such third persons, (3) engage in any communication that is part of a pattern of communication or behavior designed to form or maintain an inappropriate relationship, or (4) engage in any communication that is harmful to the minor.
(1) Share a photographic or other recorded image of the minor for the purpose of providing sexual gratification to the person who requests that the image be shared, (2) share a photographic or other recorded image of the minor, which the person who requests the image then disseminates to one or more third persons for the purpose of providing sexual gratification to such third persons, (3) engage in any communication that is part of a pattern of communication or behavior designed to form or maintain an Public Act No.
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212 inappropriate relationship, or (4) engage in any communication that is harmful to the minor.
Subdivision (3) of subsection (l) of section 54-56q of the 2024 supplement to the general statutes is repealed and the following is sSB212 / File No.
Subdivision (3) of subsection (l) of section 54-56q of the 2024 supplement to the general statutes is repealed and the following is substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2024):
484 28 sSB212 File No.
484 substituted in lieu thereof (Effective October 1, 2024):
(A) Victim impact component of the pretrial impaired driving intervention program, if ordered by the court under the provisions of this section, in order to satisfactorily complete the pretrial impaired driving intervention program;
(A) Victim impact component of the pretrial impaired driving intervention program, if ordered by the court under the provisions of Public Act No.
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212 this section, in order to satisfactorily complete the pretrial impaired driving intervention program;
sSB212 / File No.
Sec.
484 29 sSB212 File No.
484 Sec.
Any portion of a sentence thatisbasedona crime orcrimescommittedwhileaperson wastwenty- one years of age or older [,] shall be subject to the applicable parole eligibility, suitability and release rules set forth in subsections (a) to (e), inclusive, of this section.
Any portion of a sentence thatisbasedona crime orcrimescommittedwhileapersonwas twenty- one years of age or older [,] shall be subject to the applicable parole eligibility, suitability and release rules set forth in subsections (a) to (e), inclusive, of this section.
(B) In developing annual health care quality benchmarks pursuant to this subdivision, the executive director shall consider (i) quality measures endorsed by nationally recognized organizations, including, but not limited to, the National Quality Forum, the National Committee for Quality Assurance, the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, the National Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, the Joint Commission and expert organizations that develop health equity measures, and (ii) measures that:
(B) In developing annual health care quality benchmarks pursuant to this subdivision, the executive director shall consider (i) quality measures endorsed by nationally recognized organizations, including, but not limited to, the National Quality Forum, the National Committee for Quality Assurance, the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, the National Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, the Joint Public Act No.
24-24 32 of 36 Substitute Senate Bill No.
212 Commission and expert organizations that develop health equity measures, and (ii) measures that:
The sSB212 / File No.
The executive director may hold informational public hearings concerning the quality measures the executive director proposes to adopt as health care quality benchmarks.
484 30 sSB212 File No.
484 executive director may hold informational public hearings concerning the quality measures the executive director proposes to adopt as health care quality benchmarks.
Subsection (b) of section 38a-488a of the general statutes is repealed andthefollowing issubstituted inlieuthereof(EffectiveOctober 1, 2024):
Subsection (b) of section 38a-488a of the general statutes is repealed andthefollowing issubstituted inlieuthereof(EffectiveOctober Public Act No.
24-24 33 of 36 Substitute Senate Bill No.
212 1, 2024):
sSB212 / File No.
(3) General hospital outpatient services, including at state-operated facilities;
484 31 sSB212 File No.
484 (3) General hospital outpatient services, including at state-operated facilities;
(12) Medically monitored detoxification;
Public Act No.
24-24 34 of 36 Substitute Senate Bill No.
212 (12) Medically monitored detoxification;
(19) Depression screening, including maternal depression screening, sSB212 / File No.
(19) Depression screening, including maternal depression screening, conducted by a licensed behavioral health professional;
484 32 sSB212 File No.
484 conducted by a licensed behavioral health professional;
and (3) a link to the consumer report card developed and distributed by the Insurance Commissioner pursuant to section 38a-478l.
and (3) a link to the consumer report card developed and distributed by the Insurance Commissioner pursuant to Public Act No.
24-24 35 of 36 Substitute Senate Bill No.
212 section 38a-478l.
(Effective October 1, 2024) sSB212 / File No.
(Effective October 1, 2024) Approved May 21, 2024 Public Act No.
484 33 sSB212 File No.
24-24 36 of 36
484 This act shall take effect as follows and shall amend the following sections:
Section 1 October 1, 2024 4-159(a) Sec.
2 October 1, 2024 4-186(c) Sec.
3 October 1, 2024 7-294pp(a) Sec.
4 October 1, 2024 10-19m(b) Sec.
5 October 1, 2024 17a-500(b) Sec.
6 October 1, 2024 17a-566(a) Sec.
7 October 1, 2024 20-204b(b) Sec.
8 October 1, 2024 22-329a(e) Sec.
9 October 1, 2024 29-28(b) Sec.
10 October 1, 2024 29-31 Sec.
11 October 1, 2024 29-38c(c) Sec.
12 October 1, 2024 29-38c(f) Sec.
13 October 1, 2024 31-3i(a)(3) Sec.
14 October 1, 2024 31-3uu(a)(7) Sec.
15 October 1, 2024 31-900(g) Sec.
16 October 1, 2024 46a-51 Sec.
17 October 1, 2024 46b-38j(a) Sec.
18 October 1, 2024 46b-38m Sec.
19 October 1, 2024 46b-121n(q) Sec.
20 October 1, 2024 46b-128a(k)(3) Sec.
21 October 1, 2024 47a-71a Sec.
22 October 1, 2024 51-164n(b) Sec.
23 October 1, 2024 53-202w(g) Sec.
24 October 1, 2024 53a-196j(b) Sec.
25 October 1, 2024 54-56q(l)(3) Sec.
26 October 1, 2024 54-56r(n)(3) Sec.
27 October 1, 2024 54-125a(g)(2) Sec.
28 October 1, 2024 19a-754g(b)(2) Sec.
29 October 1, 2024 38a-488a(b) Sec.
30 October 1, 2024 38a-1041(f) Sec.
31 October 1, 2024 46b-15c(d) Sec.
32 October 1, 2024 Repealer section JUD Joint Favorable Subst.
sSB212 / File No.
484 34 sSB212 File No.
484 The following Fiscal Impact Statement and Bill Analysis are prepared for the benefit of the members of the General Assembly, solely for purposes of information, summarization and explanation and do not represent the intent of the General Assembly or either chamber thereof for any purpose.
In general, fiscal impacts are based upon a variety of informational sources, including the analyst’s professional knowledge.
Whenever applicable, agency data is consulted as part of the analysis, however final products do not necessarily reflect an assessment from any specific department.
OFA Fiscal Note State Impact:
None Municipal Impact:
None Explanation The bill, which makes various technical changes to state statutes, is not anticipated to have a fiscal impact to the state or to municipalities.
The Out Years State Impact:
None Municipal Impact:
None sSB212 / File No.
484 35 sSB212 File No.
484 OLR Bill Analysis sSB 212 AN ACT CONCERNING THE REVISOR'S TECHNICAL CORRECTIONS TO THE GENERAL STATUTES.
SUMMARY This bill makes various technical changes throughout the general statutes.
EFFECTIVE DATE:
October 1, 2024 COMMITTEE ACTION Judiciary Committee Joint Favorable Substitute Yea 37 Nay 0 (03/26/2024) sSB212 / File No.
484 36
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Action History

  1. SIGNED BY GOVERNOR

  2. TRANSMITTED BY SECRETARY OF THE STATE TO GOVERNOR

  3. TRANSMITTED TO SECRETARY OF THE STATE

  4. PUBLIC ACT 24-24

  5. IN CONCURRENCE

  6. HOUSE PASSED

  7. HOUSE CALENDAR NUMBER 423

  8. FAV. RPT., TABLED FOR HOUSE CALENDAR

  9. SENATE PASSED

  10. FILE NO. 484

  11. SENATE CALENDAR NUMBER 275

  12. FAV. RPT., TAB. FOR CAL., SEN.

  13. RPTD. OUT OF LCO

  14. REFERRED TO Office of Legislative Research AND Office of Fiscal Analysis 04/15/24

  15. FILED WITH LCO

  16. Joint Favorable Substitute

  17. PUBLIC HEARING 0304

  18. REF. TO JOINT COMM. ON Judiciary

Sponsors

Sponsorship breakdown

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1 sponsors · 0 co-sponsors · 186 not signed on · 2 voted No

Sponsors (1)

Co-sponsors (0)

None.

Not signed on (186)

186 members have not signed on to this bill.

Show all 186 →

"Not signed on" means a member has not sponsored or co-sponsored this bill — it does not imply opposition. Members flagged Voted No have a recorded No vote on this bill.

Whip count is in markup. Polling the chamber and every recorded vote this session. Only the first open is slow. It’s instant for you after this. Calling the roll · Tallying · Engrossing

Votes

House Roll Call Vote

Passed 143 Yea · 2 Nay · 6 Other
Party YeaNayPresentNot Voting
Democratic 77202
Republican 44000
Unaffiliated 22004
Total 143206
% of votes cast 95%1%0%4%
How each member voted (151)
Member Party Vote
Arnone — Not Voting
Khanna — Yea
Michel — Yea
Conley — Yea
Chaleski — Yea
Currey — Yea
Cheeseman — Yea
D'agostino — Yea
Cooley — Yea
Dancho — Yea
Palm — Yea
Denning — Not Voting
Porter — Yea
Ferraro — Not Voting
Cook — Yea
Ryan — Yea
Harrison — Yea
Figueroa — Yea
Hayes — Not Voting
Labriola — Yea
Tercyak — Yea
Mccarthy Vahey — Yea
Mccarty, K. — Yea
Morrin Bello — Yea
Sanchez, J. — Yea
Sanchez, R. — Yea
Aimee Berger-Girvalo Democratic Yea
Alphonse Paolillo Democratic Yea
Andre F. Baker Democratic Yea
Anne M. Hughes Democratic Yea
Anthony L. Nolan Democratic Yea
Antonio Felipe Democratic Yea
Aundre Bumgardner Democratic Yea
Bob Godfrey Democratic Yea
Bobby G. Gibson Democratic Yea
Brandon Chafee Democratic Yea
Christopher Poulos Democratic Yea
Christopher Rosario Democratic Yea
Corey P. Paris Democratic Yea
Derell Wilson Democratic Yea
Dominique Johnson Democratic Yea
Eleni Kavros DeGraw Democratic Yea
Emmanuel Sanchez Democratic Yea
Farley Santos Democratic Yea
Frank Smith Democratic Yea
Fred Gee Democratic Yea
Gary A. Turco Democratic Yea
Geoff Luxenberg Democratic Yea
Geraldo C. Reyes Democratic Yea
Gregory Haddad Democratic Yea
Hector Arzeno Democratic Yea
Henry J. Genga Democratic Yea
Hilda E. Santiago Democratic Yea
Hubert D. Delany Democratic Yea
Jaime S. Foster Democratic Yea
Jane M. Garibay Democratic Yea
Jason Doucette Democratic Yea
Jason Rojas Democratic Yea
Jennifer Leeper Democratic Yea
Jill Barry Democratic Yea
Jillian Gilchrest Democratic Yea
John-Michael Parker Democratic Yea
Jonathan Fazzino Democratic Yea
Jonathan Steinberg Democratic Yea
Joseph P. Gresko Democratic Yea
Josh Elliott Democratic Nay
Joshua M. Hall Democratic Yea
Juan R. Candelaria Democratic Yea
Julio A. Concepcion Democratic Yea
Kadeem Roberts Democratic Yea
Kai J. Belton Democratic Yea
Kara Rochelle Democratic Yea
Kate Farrar Democratic Yea
Kerry S. Wood Democratic Yea
Kevin Brown Democratic Yea
Larry B. Butler Democratic Yea
Liz Linehan Democratic Yea
Lucy Dathan Democratic Yea
Marcus Brown Democratic Yea
Maria P. Horn Democratic Yea
Mary Fortier Democratic Yea
Mary M. Mushinsky Democratic Not Voting
Mary Welander Democratic Yea
Maryam Khan Democratic Yea
Matt Blumenthal Democratic Yea
Matthew Ritter Democratic Yea
Melissa Osborne Democratic Yea
Michael D. Quinn Democratic Yea
Michael DiGiovancarlo Democratic Yea
Mike Demicco Democratic Yea
Minnie Gonzalez Democratic Yea
Moira Rader Democratic Yea
Patricia A. Dillon Democratic Yea
Patrick S. Boyd Democratic Yea
Raghib Allie-Brennan Democratic Yea
Robin E. Comey Democratic Yea
Roland J. Lemar Democratic Nay
Ronald A. Napoli Democratic Yea
Sarah Keitt Democratic Yea
Stephen R. Meskers Democratic Yea
Steven J. Stafstrom Democratic Yea
Susan M. Johnson Democratic Yea
Tammy R. Exum Democratic Yea
Toni E. Walker Democratic Not Voting
Travis Simms Democratic Yea
Trenee McGee Democratic Yea
William Heffernan Democratic Yea
Anne Dauphinais Republican Yea
Ben McGorty Republican Yea
Bill Buckbee Republican Yea
Brian Lanoue Republican Yea
Cara Christine Pavalock-D'Amato Republican Yea
Carol Hall Republican Yea
Chris Aniskovich Republican Yea
Christie M. Carpino Republican Yea
Craig C. Fishbein Republican Yea
Dave W. Yaccarino Republican Yea
David Rutigliano Republican Yea
Devin R. Carney Republican Yea
Donna Veach Republican Yea
Doug Dubitsky Republican Yea
Gale L. Mastrofrancesco Republican Yea
Greg S. Howard Republican Yea
Irene M. Haines Republican Yea
Jason Perillo Republican Yea
Jay M. Case Republican Yea
Joe Hoxha Republican Yea
Joe Polletta Republican Yea
John E. Piscopo Republican Yea
Joseph H. Zullo Republican Yea
Karen Reddington-Hughes Republican Yea
Kathy Kennedy Republican Yea
Kurt Vail Republican Yea
Lezlye Zupkus Republican Yea
Mark DeCaprio Republican Yea
Mark W. Anderson Republican Yea
Martin Foncello Republican Yea
Mitch Bolinsky Republican Yea
Nicole Klarides-Ditria Republican Yea
Patrick E. Callahan Republican Yea
Seth Bronko Republican Yea
Steve Weir Republican Yea
Tami Zawistowski Republican Yea
Tammy Nuccio Republican Yea
Tim Ackert Republican Yea
Tom Delnicki Republican Yea
Tom O'Dea Republican Yea
Tony J. Scott Republican Yea
Tracy Marra Republican Yea
Vincent J. Candelora Republican Yea
William Pizzuto Republican Yea

Official roll call →

Senate Roll Call Vote

Passed 36 Yea · 0 Nay
Party YeaNayPresentNot Voting
Democratic 23000
Unaffiliated 3000
Republican 10000
Total 36000
% of votes cast 100%0%0%0%
How each member voted (36)
Member Party Vote
Kevin C. Kelly — Yea
Lisa Seminara — Yea
Marilyn Moore — Yea
Bob Duff Democratic Yea
Catherine A. Osten Democratic Yea
Ceci Maher Democratic Yea
Christine Cohen Democratic Yea
Derek Slap Democratic Yea
Douglas McCrory Democratic Yea
Gary A. Winfield Democratic Yea
Herron Gaston Democratic Yea
James J. Maroney Democratic Yea
Jan Hochadel Democratic Yea
Joan V. Hartley Democratic Yea
John W. Fonfara Democratic Yea
Jorge Cabrera Democratic Yea
Julie Kushner Democratic Yea
MD Rahman Democratic Yea
Mae Flexer Democratic Yea
Martha Marx Democratic Yea
Martin M. Looney Democratic Yea
Matthew L. Lesser Democratic Yea
Norman Needleman Democratic Yea
Patricia Billie Miller Democratic Yea
Rick Lopes Democratic Yea
Saud Anwar Democratic Yea
Eric C. Berthel Republican Yea
Heather S. Somers Republican Yea
Henri Martin Republican Yea
Jeff Gordon Republican Yea
John A. Kissel Republican Yea
Paul Cicarella Republican Yea
Rob Sampson Republican Yea
Ryan Fazio Republican Yea
Stephen G. Harding Republican Yea
Tony Hwang Republican Yea

Official roll call →

Subjects

public-safety housing civil-rights healthcare technology
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Frequently asked questions

Who sponsors SB 212?
SB 212 is sponsored by Craig C. Fishbein (Republican).
What is the current status of SB 212?
This bill has been enacted into law. Introduced February 22, 2024. Enacted.
Where can I track SB 212?
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